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  Question 1

Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin ?



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     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      Vitamin B complex is fat insoluble

  •   Question 2

    Which of the statements about "Denaturation" given below are correct ?
    Statements:
    (a) Denaturation of proteins causes loss of secondary and tertiary structures of the protein.
    (b) Denturation leads to the conversion of double strand of DNA into single strand
    (c) Denaturation affects primary strucrture which gets distorted




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     Correct answer is : 3

     Solution :
      During denaturation secondary and tertiary structures of protein destroyed but primary structures remains intact.

  •   Question 3

    Which has the maximum number of molecules among the following ?



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     Correct answer is : 3

     Solution :
      Moles of 1: 44/44 =1 →so number of molecules = Na
    Moles of 2: 48/48 =1 →so number of molecules = Na
    Moles of 3: 8/2=4 →so number of molecules = 4Na Moles of 4: 64/64 =1 →so number of molecules = Na


  •   Question 4

    The half life of a substance in a certain eznzyme-catalysed reaction is 138 s. The time required for the concentration of the substance to fall from 1.28 mg L-1 to 0.04 mg L-1 ,is:



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     Correct answer is : 3

     Solution :
      Enzyme catalysed reactions are initially follow first order kinetics when concentration decreases 1.28 mg L-1to 0.04 mg L-1 .Then five half life completed
    No. of half lives = 5
    So, times required = 5 138 = 690 s

  •   Question 5

    Which of the following compounds undergoes nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily ?



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     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      The correct order of nucleophilic substitution reactions
    A>D>B>C

  •   Question 6

    Which of the following statements is incorrect ?



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     Correct answer is : 3



  •   Question 7

    A 0.1 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid is 30% ionized. If Kf for water is 1.86°C/m, the freezing point of the solution will be :



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     Correct answer is : 4

     Solution :
      ΔTf = iKfm
    HA → H+ + AH-
    1-α → α α
    1-0.3 → 0.3 0.3
    i = 1 - 0.3 + 0.3 + 0.3
    i = 1.3
    ΔTf = 1.3 *1.86 *0.1 = 0.2418
    Tf = 0 - 0.2418 = -0.2418°C

  •   Question 8

    The rate of the reaction 2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2 can be written in three ways :

    -d[N2O5]/dt = k[N2O5]

    d[NO2]/dt = k'[N2O5]

    d[O2 ]/dt = k"[N2O5]

    The relationship between k and k' and between k and k" are :




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     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      -1/2 d[N2O5]/dt = 1/4 d[NO2]/dt = d[O2 ]/dt

    1/2 k[N2O5] = 1/4 k'[N2O5] = k"[N2O5]

  •   Question 9

    Which of the following carbonyls will have the strongest C-O bond ?



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     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      As + ve charge on the central metal atom increases, the less readily the metal can donate electron density into the π* orbitals of CO ligand to weaken the C-O bond. Hence the C-O bond would be strongest in Mn(CO)6+

  •   Question 10

    The order of reactivity of phenyl magnesium bromide (PhMgBr) with the following compounds :





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     Correct answer is : 4

     Solution :
      4 due to steric crowding

  •   Question 11

    The IUPAC name of the following compound






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     Correct answer is : 1


  •   Question 12

    According to the Bohr Theory, which of the following transitions in the hydrogen atom will give rise to the least energetic photon ?



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     Correct answer is : 3

     Solution :
      Energy of photon obtained from the transition n = 6 to n = 5 will have least energy.
    ΔE = 13.6Z2(1/n12 - 1/n22)

  •   Question 13

    A solid compound XY has NaCl structure. If the radius of the cation is 100 pm, the radius of the anion (Y-) will be :



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     Correct answer is : 3

     Solution :
      Radius ratio of NaCl like crystal = r+ / r- = 0.414
    r- = 100 / 0.414 =241.5

  •   Question 14

    Consider the following processes and their ΔH((kJ/mol) :
    1/2 A → B (+150)
    3B → 2C + D -(125)
    E + A → 2D (+350)
    For B + D → E + 2C, ΔH will be




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     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      by doing 2*eq(1) + eq(2) - eq(3) we will get the asked equation
    ΔH = 300 -125 -350 =-175

  •   Question 15

    Match the compounds given in List-I with List-II and select the suitable option using the code given below :
    List1List2
    a)Benzaldehydei)Phenolphthalein
    b)Phthalic anhydrideii)Benzoin condensation
    c)Phenyl benzoateiii)Oil of wintergreen
    d)Methyl salicylate (iv) Fries rearrangement

    a,b,c and d are




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     Correct answer is : 4


  •   Question 16

    Which of the following compounds is most basic ?



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     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      In benzylamine, the lone pair on nitrogen is not delocalized with the benzene ring.

  •   Question 17

    Which of the following structures is the most preferred and hence of lowest energy for SO3 ?



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     Correct answer is : 4

     Solution :
      Formal charges help in the selection of the lowest energy structure from a number of possible Lewis structures for a given species. Generally the lowest energy structure is the one with the smallest formal charges on the atoms.

  •   Question 18

    A solution contains Fe2+, Fe3+ and I- ions. This solution was treated with iodine at 35°C. E° for Fe3+/Fe2+ is + 0.77 V and E° for I2/2I- = 0.536 V. The favourable redox reaction is



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     Correct answer is : 3

     Solution :
      Since the reduction potential of Fe3+/Fe2+ is greater than that of I2/2I- , Fe3+ will be reduced and I- will be oxidized

  •   Question 19

    What is the value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ if IE1 of Na = 5.1 eV ?



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     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      Electron gain enthalpy is the ΔH for the process
    Na+ + e- → Na
    ΔH = -5.1eV

  •   Question 20

    The unit of rate constant for a zero order reaction is :



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     Correct answer is : 1


  •   Question 21

    In qualitative analysis, the metals of Group I can be separated from other ions by precipitating them as chloride slats. A solution initially contains Ag+ and Pb2+ at a concentration of 0.10 M. Aqueous HCl is added to this solution until the Cl- concentration is 0.10 M. What will be concentrations of Ag+ and Pb2+ be at equilibrium?
    (Ksp for AgCl = 1.8 * 10-10, Ksp for PbCl2 = 1.7 * 105)




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     Correct answer is : 3

     Solution :
      [Ag+] = 1.8 * 10-10/0.1

    [Pb2+] = 1.7 * 10-5/ (0.1)2

  •   Question 22

    A bubble of air is underwater at temperature 15°C and the pressure 1.5 bar. If the bubble rises to the surface where the temperature is 25°C and the pressure is 1.0 bar, what will happen to the volume of the bubble?



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     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      V ∝ T/P
    V2 ∝ 298
    V1 ∝ 288/1.5
    V2 /V1 = 1.55


  •   Question 23

    Match List-I with List-II for the compositions of substances and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
    CaSO4.1/2H2O
    SubstancesComposition
    a)Palster of parisi)CaSO4.2H2O
    b)Epsomiteii)
    c)kieseriteiii)MaSO4.7H2O
    d)Gypsum (iv)MaSO4.H2O
    (v)CaSO4




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     Correct answer is : 2


  •   Question 24

    The pairs of species of oxygen and their magnetic behaviours are noted below. Which of the following presents the correct description ?



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     Correct answer is : 3

     Solution :
      they contain one and two unpaired electrons each.

  •   Question 25

    Consider the reactions :
    The mechanisms of reactions (i) and (ii) are respectively :






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     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      Rearrangements do not occur in the given substitution reactions. So carbocation intermediates are not involved. Hence the mechanism is SN2 in both cases.

  •   Question 26

    Which of the following complex compounds will exhibit highest paramagnetic behaviour ?
    (At. No. Ti 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27, Zn = 30)




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     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      [Cr(NH3)6]3+ contain three unpaired electrons.

  •   Question 27

    200mL of an aqueous solution of a protein contains its 1.26 g. The Osmotic pressure of this solution at 300K is found to be 2.57 * 10-?3 bar. The molar mass of protein will be (R = 0.083 L bar mol?-?1 K-?1) :



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     Correct answer is : 4

     Solution :
      πv=nST
    M = W*S*T/π*v


  •   Question 28

    Which of the following oxide is amphoteric ?



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     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      because it reacts with acids as well as bases to form corresponding salts.

  •   Question 29

    The following reactions take place in the blast furnace in the preparation of impure iron. Identify the reaction pertaining to the formation of the slag.



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     Correct answer is : 3

     Solution :
      Slag can be defined as a fusiblemass, which is obtained when a flux reacts with an infusible acidic or basic impurity present in the oxide ore.
    CaO(s) (basic flux) + SiO2 (s) (acidic flux) → CaSiO3 (s) (slag)

  •   Question 30

    An organic compound ?'A'? on treatment with NH3 gives ?'B'? which on heating gives ?'C?', ?'C?' when treated with Br2 in the presence of KOH produces ethylamine. Compound ?'A'? is :



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     Correct answer is : 4



  •   Question 31

    The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females:



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     Correct answer is : 1


  •   Question 32

    Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us in regard to breathing, by making a conscious effort?



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     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      Eustachian tube connect middle ear cavity (Tympanic cavity) with pharynx

  •   Question 33

    Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which contain insecticidal protein



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     Correct answer is : 1


  •   Question 34

    Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched while the remaining three are correct?



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     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      Water hyacinth is offset.

  •   Question 35

    Which one of the following diagrams represents the placentation in Dianthus?



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     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      Free central placentation occurs in Dianthus

  •   Question 36

    Which one of the following statements is totally wrong about the occurrence of notochord, while the other three are correct?



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     Correct answer is : 3

     Solution :
      Because get changed or replaced by vertibral column

  •   Question 37

    Which one of the following animals may occupy more than one trophic levels in the same ecosystem at the same time?



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     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      It feeds upon grains hence called primary consumer and also insects hence called secondary consumer

  •   Question 38

    Both, hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to:



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     Correct answer is : 1


  •   Question 39

    What happens during fertilisation in humans after many sperms reach close to the ovum?



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     Correct answer is : 1


  •   Question 40

    About which day in a normal human menstrual cycle does rapid secretion of LH (Popularly called LH-surge) normally occurs?



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     Correct answer is : 1


  •   Question 41

    About which day in a normal human menstrual cycle does rapid secretion of LH (Popularly called LH-surge) normally occurs?



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     Correct answer is : 1


  •   Question 42

    About which day in a normal human menstrual cycle does rapid secretion of LH (Popularly called LH-surge) normally occurs?



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     Correct answer is : 1


  •   Question 43

    The cells lining the blood vessels belong to the category of:



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     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      Inner most lining of Blood vessels in endothelium and is a type of squamous epithelia.

  •   Question 44

    The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm disease in humans belongs to the same Kingdom of organisms as that of:



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     Correct answer is : 3

     Solution :
      Micorosporum is a member of Deuteromycetes of fungi & Rizopus is also fungi and member of Zygomycetes.

  •   Question 45

    The figure below shows the structure of a mitochondrion with its four parts labelled (A), (B), (C) and (D). Select the part correctly matched with its function.





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     Correct answer is : 2


  •   Question 46

    Read the following statement having two blanks (A and B):
    ?A drug used for --------(A)-------- patients is obtained from a species of the organism --------(B)--------.? The one correct option for the two blanks is:




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     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      CyclosporinA is immunosuppressive drug obtained from Trichoderma and use in organ transplantation

  •   Question 47

    Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing transgenic plants resistant to:



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     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      It occur through RNA i

  •   Question 48

    At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by their:



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     Correct answer is : 3


  •   Question 49

    Consider the following statements (A-D) about organic farming:
    (A) Utilizes genetically modified crops like Bt cotton
    (B) Uses only naturally produced inputs like compost
    (C) Does not use pesticides and urea
    (D) Produces vegetables rich in vitamins and minerals
    Which of the above statements are correct?




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     Correct answer is : 3


  •   Question 50

    One of the constituents of the pancreatic juice while poured into the duodenum in humans, is:



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     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      Because it is inactive form and we know that all enzymes of pancrease secreted in this form

  •   Question 51

    Frogs differ from humans in possessing:



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     Correct answer is : 3

     Solution :
      Human possesses enucleated RBC inmature state

  •   Question 52

    Which one of the following option gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative organism andmode mode of infection.




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     Correct answer is : 2


  •   Question 53

    Test cross in plants or in Drosophila involves crossing



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     Correct answer is : 3

     Solution :
      It is a defination of test cross

  •   Question 54

    Some vascular bundles are described as open because these



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     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      Open means presence of cambium during sec. growth. Vascular cambium divides to form secondary xylem towards Inner side while sec. Phloem towards outside

  •   Question 55

    In mitochondria, protons accumulate in the



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     Correct answer is : 3


  •   Question 56

    The breakdown of detritus into smaller particles by earthworm is a process called



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     Correct answer is : 2


  •   Question 57

    Whorled, simple leaves with reticulate venation are present in



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     Correct answer is : 4

     Solution :
      Whorled phyllotaxy is feature of Nerium and Alstonia. In Alstonia five leaves present in a whorl while in Nerium three leaves present in a whorl

  •   Question 58

    Sweet potato is homolgous to



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     Correct answer is : 4

     Solution :
      Sweet potato and turnip both are roots

  •   Question 59

    The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic material came from the studies on a



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     Correct answer is : 4


  •   Question 60

    Consider the following four statements whether they are correct of wrong
    (A) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses
    (B) Salvinia is heterosporous
    (C) The life- cycle in all seed-bearing plants is diplontic
    (D) In pinus male and female cones are borne on different trees




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     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      (A) Sporophyte is more developed in mosses rather than liver wort.
    (B) Pinus is Monoecious in which male & female cones are borne on different branch.

  •   Question 61

    Consider the following four statements (A-D) related to the common frog Rana tigrina, and select the correct option stating which ones are true (T) and which ones are false (F) Statements :
    (A) On dry land it would die due to lack of O2 its mouth is forcibly kept closed for a few days
    (B) It has four- chambered heart
    (C) On day land it turns uricotelic from ureotelic
    (4) Its life-history is carried out in pond water




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     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      (A) Dry skin cause ceased cutaneous respiration
    (B) Three chembered heart.
    (C) Frog never be uricotalic
    (D) External fertilization and in water

  •   Question 62

    In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have



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     Correct answer is : 2


  •   Question 63

    Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is human, Which one of its components is correctly interpreted below





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     Correct answer is : 3

     Solution :
      Peak P-causes diastolic phase in ventricle while R-Peak causes systole in ventricle means diastolic and systolic phases represented by P & R and same Diastolic and systolic B.P.

  •   Question 64

    Which one of the following structures in Pheretima is correctly matched with its function



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     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      Clitellum - secretes cocoon during breading season of earthworm. Gizzard -grinding of food particles. setae help in locomotion. Typhlosole increases the absorption area in intestine

  •   Question 65

    Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to represent a significant step toward evolution of seed habit because:



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     Correct answer is : 4


  •   Question 66

    Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from body tissues into the blood is present as



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     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      70% to 75% CO2 is transported as NaHCO3 by plasma and KHCO3 by RBCs

  •   Question 67

    In angiosperms, Functional megaspore develops into



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     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      During megagametogenesis functional megaspore (mostly chalazal) gives rise to embryo sac

  •   Question 68

    Consider the following statements (A)-(D) each with one or two blanks.
    (A) Bears go into __(1)__ during winter to __(2)__ cold weather
    (B) A conical age pyramid with a broad base represents __(3)__ human population
    (C) A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an example of __(4)___
    (D) An area with high levels of species richness is known as __(5)___

    Which one of the following options give the correct fill ups the respective blank numbers from (1) to (5) in the statements




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     Correct answer is : 4


  •   Question 69

    What is common between vegetative reproduction and Apomixis



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     Correct answer is : 4

     Solution :
      The progeny are genetically similar to parent and called clone

  •   Question 70

    Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is



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     Correct answer is : 4

     Solution :
      The progeny are genetically similar to parent and called clone

  •   Question 71

    Which one of the following is not an essential mineral element for plants while the remaining three are



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     Correct answer is : 3

     Solution :
      Cadmium is not essential element for plants

  •   Question 72

    Biodiversity of a geographical region represents



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     Correct answer is : 2


  •   Question 73

    Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system ?



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     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      Except peroxisome the remaining three and ER are the parts of Endomembrane system.

  •   Question 74

    Which one of the following correctly represents the normal adult human dental formula ?



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     Correct answer is : 3


  •   Question 75

    Charge q is uniformly spread on a thin ring of radius R. The ring rotates about its axis with a uniform frequency f Hz. The magnitude of magnetic induction at the centre of the ring is



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     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      B = µI/2R
    I = q/T=qf
    B = µ0qf /2R

  •   Question 76

    The figure shows four animals (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the correct answer with respect to a common characteristics of two of these animals.






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     Correct answer is : 4

     Solution :
      From Annaelida to chordata all are Eucoelomate C-Mollusca (Octopus), D-Arthropoda (Scorpion)

  •   Question 77

    In history of biology, human genome project led to the development of :



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     Correct answer is : 3


  •   Question 78

    Which one of the following conditions of the zygotic cell would lead to the birth of a normal human female child ?



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     Correct answer is : 1


  •   Question 79

    Which one of the following is essential for photolysis of water ?



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     Correct answer is : 1


  •   Question 80

    Which one of the following techniques made it possible to genetically engineer living organism ?



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     Correct answer is : 1


  •   Question 81

    Ureters act as urogenital ducts in



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     Correct answer is : 4


  •   Question 82

    The type of muscles present in our :



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     Correct answer is : 3

     Solution :
      Thigh muscles are skeletal muscle that are striated and voluntary.

  •   Question 83

    Pure Si at 500K has equal number of electron (ne) and hole (nh) concentrations of 1.5 * 1016 m?-3. Doping by indium increases nh to 4.5 * 1022 m?-3. The doped semiconductor is of :



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     Correct answer is : 4

     Solution :
      ni2 = nenh


    ne = 0.5 *1010
    nh = 4.5 *1022
    nh >>ne
    Trivalent impurity
    →p type semiconductor

  •   Question 84

    Read the following four statements (A-D) about certain mistakes in two of them
    (A) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie produced milk which was human alpha-lactal bumin enriched.
    (B) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNA from other macro-molecules.
    (C) Downstream processing is one of the steps of R-DNA technology.
    (D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in transfer of R-DNA into the host.
    Which are the two statements having mistakes ?




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     Correct answer is : 4

     Solution :
      Transgenic Rosie is actually cow Restriction enzymes cut the DNA at specific site The separation of DNA is performed by Gel electrophorasis

  •   Question 85

    The 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body such as the sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the hormone :



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     Correct answer is : 4

     Solution :
      Responsible for circadian cycle

  •   Question 86

    Guttation is the result of :



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     Correct answer is : 4

     Solution :
      Guttation is due to root pressure.

  •   Question 87

    Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts (a, b, c and d) correctly identified.





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     Correct answer is : 1


  •   Question 88

    Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal parts are correctlymatched with their respective inclusiveskeletal category and one pair is not matched. Identify the non-matching pair
    DiseaseGausative OrganismsMode of Infection




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     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      Glenoid cavity found in pectoral girdle

  •   Question 89

    Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living things ?



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     Correct answer is : 3


  •   Question 90

    "Good ozone " is found in the :



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     Correct answer is : 3


  •   Question 91

    Which one of the following is a wrong matching of a microbe and its industrial product, while the remaining three are correct ?



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     Correct answer is : 3

     Solution :
      Clostridium butylicum form butyric acid

  •   Question 92

    The logistic population growth is expressed by the equation



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     Correct answer is : 2


  •   Question 93

    Two identical piano wires kept under the same tension T have a fundamental frequency of 600 Hz. The fractional increase in the tension of one of the wires which will lead to occurrence of 6 beats/s when both the wires oscillate together would be :



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     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      1/2l * √(F/µ) = f (for fundamentalmode)
    l and µ are constant
    Taking ln on both side & differentiating
    = dF/2F = df/f
    = dF/F = 2*df/f
    =2 * 6/600 = 0.02

  •   Question 94

    In the following figure, the diodes which are forward biased, are :





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     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      Only in (a) and (c),
    Diodes are forward biased
    As p?type should be higher potential & n?type at lower potential.

  •   Question 95

    The threshold frequency for a photosensitive metal is 3.3 * 1014 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2 * 1014 Hz is incident on this metal, the cut-off voltage for the photoelectric emission is nearly :



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     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      KE = hv - hvth =eV00 = h/e * (8.2 * 1014 - 3.3 * 1014

  •   Question 96

    A galvanometer of resistance, G is shunted by a resistance S ohm. To keep the main current in the circuit unchanged, the resistance to be put in series with the galvanometer is :



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     Correct answer is : 3

     Solution :
      G = GS/(S+G) + S'
    G- GS/(S+G) = S'
    S' = G2 /(S+G)


  •   Question 97

    A square loop, carrying a steady current I, is placed in a horizontal plane near a long straight conductor carrying a steady current I1 at a distance d from the conductor as shown in figure. The loop will experience





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     Correct answer is : 4

     Solution :
      F1 > F2. hence net attraction force will be towards conductor.


  •   Question 98

    A thermocouple of negligible resistance produces an e.m.f. of 40 µV/°C in the linear range of temperature. A galvanometer of resistance 10ohm whose sensitivity is 1µA/div, is employed with the termocouple. The smallest value of temperature difference that can be detected by the system will be :



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     Correct answer is : 4

     Solution :
      1 division = 1µA
    current for 1°C = 40µ/10 = 4µA
    1µA = 1/4 °C = 0.25°C

  •   Question 99

    The r.m.s. value of potential difference V shown in the figure is :





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     Correct answer is : 2



  •   Question 100

    A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive reactance 20 Ohm at 50 Hz frequency. If an ac source, of 200 volt, 100 Hz, is connected across the coil, the current in the coil will be :



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     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      R = 30 Ω
    XL = 20 Ω = Lω
    f = 50 Hz
    XL' = 20/50 * 100= 40 Ω (Θ ω' = 2ω)
    Z = √(R2 + XL'2) = 50 Ω
    Imax = 200/50 = 4A


  •   Question 101

    A particle of mass m is thrown upwards from the surface of the earth, with a velocity u. The mass and theradius of the earth are , respectively,Mand R. G is gravitational constant and g is acceleration due to gravityon the surface of the earth. The minimum value of u so that the particle does not return back to earth, is :



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     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      GM = gR2
    =Ve = √(2gR)
    =√(2GM/R2)*R
    =√(2GM/R)

  •   Question 102

    Azener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit shown in figure. The current through the diode is :





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     Correct answer is : 4

     Solution :
      Voltage across zener diode is constant
    (i)1kΩ 15 volt / 1kΩ = 15mA
    (i)250Ω (20-15)volt / 250Ω = 20mA
    (i)zener diode = 20-15 =5mA


  •   Question 103

    A particle covers half of its total distance with speed v1 and the rest half distance with speed v2. Its average speed during the complete journey is :



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     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      Vav = S+S/(S/V1 + S/V2) = 2v1 v2 / ( v1 + v2)

  •   Question 104

    The electric potential V at any point (x, y, z), all in meters in space is given by V = 4x2 volt. The electric field at the point (1, 0, 2) in volt/meter is :



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     Correct answer is : 4



  •   Question 105

    A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 0.4J T?-1 is place in a uniform magnetic field of 0.16 T. The magnet is stable equilibrium when the potential energy is:



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     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      For stable equilibrium U =-?MB
    =-(0.4) (0.16)
    = ?-0.064 J

  •   Question 106

    A thin prism of angle 15° made of glass of refractive index µ1 = 1.5 is combined with another prism of glass of refractive index µ2 = 1.75. the combination of the prism produces dispersion without deviation . The angle of the second prism should be:



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     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      Deviation = zero
    So, δ = δ1 + δ2 = 0
    ( µ1 -1)A1 + (µ2 -1)A2 = 0
    A2=-0.5/0.75 * 15°
    A2=-10°

  •   Question 107

    Aconveyor belt ismoving at a constant speed of 2m/s.Abox is gently dropped on it. The coefficient of friction between them is µ= 0.5. The distance that the box will move relative to belt before coming to rest on it taking g = 10 ms-?2, is



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     Correct answer is : 4

     Solution :
      a = µg =5
    v2 = u2 + 2as
    Find s using above equations

  •   Question 108

    A mass of diatomic gas (γ = 1.4) at a pressure of 2 atmospheres is compressed adiabatically so that its temperature rise from 27°C to 927°C. The pressure of the gas is final state is :



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     Correct answer is : 3



  •   Question 109

    A mass m moving horizontally (along the x-axis) with velocity v collides and sticks to mass of 3m moving vertically upward (along the y-axis) with velocity 2v. The final velocity of the combination is :



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     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      From momentum conservation
    mvî + 3m(2v)ĵ = (4m)v̂
    v̂ = (v/4)î + (6/4)vĵ
    =(v/4)î + (3/2)vĵ

  •   Question 110

    Two particle are oscillating along two close parallel straight lines side by side, with the same frequency and amplitudes. They pass each other, moving in opposite directions when their displacement is half of the amplitude. The mean positions of the two particles lie on a straight line perpendicular to the paths of the two particles. The phase difference is :



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     Correct answer is : 2



  •   Question 111

    A small mass attached to a string rotates on frictionless table top as shown. If the tension is the string is increased by pulling the string causing the radius of the circular motion to decrease by a factor of 2, the kinetic energy of the mass will:





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     Correct answer is : 3

     Solution :
      KE = L2/2I
    From angular momemtum conservation about centre
    L → constant
    I = mr2
    KE' = L2/2mr'2
    r' = r/2
    KE' = 4KE
    K.E. is increased by a factor of 4

  •   Question 112

    The density of material in CGS system of units is 4g/cm3. In a system of units in which unit of lengths is 10 cm and unit of mass is 100 g, the value of density of material will be :



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     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      U2 = U1 * (M1 / M2 ) * (L1 / L2 )-3
    4 * (1/100)(1/10)-3
    =40

  •   Question 113

    An electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from excited state n to the ground state. The wavelength so emitted illuminates a photosensitivematerial having work function 2.75 eV. If the stopping potential of the photoelectron is 10 V, the value of n is :



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     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      KEmax =10eV
    φ = 2.75 eV
    E = φ + KE = 12.75eV
    Energy difference between n = 4 and n = 1
    value of n = 4

  •   Question 114

    A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of spherical shell of mass and radius a. The magnitude of the gravitational potential at a point situated at a/2 distance from the centre, will be:



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     Correct answer is : 2



  •   Question 115

    Two radioactive nuclei P and Q, in a given sample decay into a stable nucleolus R. At time t = 0, number of P species are 4 N0 and that of Q are N0. Half-life of P (for conversion to R) is 1 minute where as that of Q is 2 minutes. Initially there are no nuclei of R present in the sample. When number of nuclei of P and Q are equal, the number of nuclei of R present in the sample would be



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     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      P→4N0
    Q→N0
    Half time TP=1min
    TQ = 2min
    Let after time t number of nuclie of P and Q are equal that is 4N0 /2t/1
    =N0/2t/2
    4/2t/2=1
    t = 4min
    NP=N0/4
    at t=4min.
    NQ = N0/24/2
    N0/4
    popu of R= (4N0 -N0)+(N0-N0/4)

  •   Question 116

    A projectile is fired at an angle of 45° with the horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at its highest point as seen from the point of projection is :



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     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      RtanΘ = 4Hmax
    R * tan 45° = 4Hmax
    Hmax = R/4
    tan φ =Hmax/(R/2)
    =1/2

  •   Question 117

    Out of the following which one is not a possible energy for a photon to be emitted by hydrogen atom according to Bohr?s atomic model?



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     Correct answer is : 2



  •   Question 118

    In the circuit shown in the figure, if potential at point A is taken to be zero the potential at point B is :





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     Correct answer is : 4

     Solution :
      Current through DC = 2 - 1 = 1 A from D to C
    Path DBCB
    VC = 1V
    VDC =2*1=2V
    VB =0 + 1 + 2V -2V

  •   Question 119

    A conversing beam of rays is incident on a diverging lens. Having passed though the lens the rays intersect at a point 15 cm from the lens on the opposite side. If the lens is removed the point where the rays meets will move 5 cm closer to the lens. The focal length of the lens is :



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     Correct answer is : 3

     Solution :
      u=10cm
    v=15cm
    f=?
    use -1/u + 1/v =1/f
    f=-30cm

  •   Question 120

    Three charges, each +q, are placed at the corners of an isosceles triangle ABC of sides BC and AC, 2a. D and E are the mid points of BC and CA. The work done in taking a charge Q from D to E is:





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     Correct answer is : 3



  • Pairs of skeletalpartsCategory
    TOTAL = 120
    ANSWERED =
    CORRECT / TOTAL = /120
    POSITIVE SCORE =
    NEGATIVE SCORE =
    FINAL SCORE =