Question 1

A current loop consists of two identical semicircular parts each of radius R, one lying in the x-y plane and the other in x-z plane. If the current in the loop is i. The resultantmagnetic field due to the two semicircular parts at their common centre is

A : µ0i / 2√2 R
B : µ0i / 2R
C : µ0i / 4R
D : µ0i / √2R

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Solution :
B = √(Bxy2 + Bxz2)
= √((µ0i / 4R)2 + (µ0i / 4R)2)
0i√2 / 4R)2
0i / 2√2 R

•   Question 2

Two following figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A and B and the output Y. the voltage wave forms of A, B and Y are as given.
The logic gate is:?

A : NOR
B : OR
C : AND
D : NAND

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Solution :
It is clear from given logic circuit, that output Y is low when both the inputs are high, otherwise it is high. Thus logic circuit is NAND gate.

•   Question 3

Two parallel metal plates having charges +Q and -?Q face each other at a certain distance between them. If the plates are now dipped in kerosene oil tank, the electric field between the plates will

A : become zero
B : increase
C : decrease
D : remains same

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Solution :
Electric field between two parallel plates placed in vacuum is given by
E = σ/ ε0
In a medium of dielectric constant K,
E'= σ / ε0K
For kerosene oil K > 1
so E' = E

•   Question 4

The electric field at a distance 3R/2 from the centre of a charged conducting spherical shell of radius R is E. The electric field at a distance R/2 from the centre of the sphere is

A : 0
B : E
C : E/2
D : E/3

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Solution :
Electric field inside charged conductor is always zero.

•   Question 5

Astudent measures the distance traversed in free fall of abody, initially at rest, in a given time. He uses this data to estimate g, the acceleration due to gravity. If themaximum percentage errors in measurement of the distance and the time are e1 and e2 respectively, the percentage error in the estimation of g is

A : e2 - e1
B : e1 + 2e2
C : e1 + e2
D : e1 - 2e2

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Solution :
using h= ut + 1/2gt2
we get Δg/g =Δh/h -2Δt/t
For max permissible error
(Δg/g *100) =(Δh/h *100 ) +2*(Δt/t *100)
Δh/h *100 = e1
Δt/t *100 = e2
therefore (Δg/g *100) = e1 + 2e2

•   Question 6

Whenmonochromatic radiation of intensity ? falls on ametal surface, the number of photoelectrons and their maximum kinetic energy are N and T respectively. If the intensity of radiation is 2?, the number of emitted electrons and their maximum kinetic energy are respectively

A : N and 2T
B : 2N and T
C : 2N and 2T
D : N and T

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Solution :
The number of photoelectrons ejected is directly proportional to the intensity of incident light. Maximum kinetic energy is independent of intensity of incident light but depends upon the frequency of light. Hence option (2) is correct.

•   Question 7

The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in free space is given by Ê = 10cos(107t + kx)ĵ V/m, where t and x are in seconds and metres respectively. It can be inferred that
(i) the wavelength λ is 188.4 m.
(ii) the wave number k is 0.33 rad/m
(iii) the wave amplitude is 10 V/m(iv) the wave is propagating along +x direction
Which one of the following pairs of statements is correct ?

A : iii and iv
B : i and ii
C : ii and iii
D : i and iii

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Solution :
Comparing it with standard equation of e.m. wave,
E= E0cos(wt + kx)
c = vλ = wλ/2π
λ= 2πc /w ;
λ=188.4m
also c=w/k
k=w/c = 0.033

•   Question 8

The speed of light in media M1 and M2 are 1.5 × 108 m/s and 2.0 × 108 m/s respectively.A ray of light enters from medium M1 to M2 at an incidence angle i. If the ray suffers total internal reflection, the value of i is:

A : Equal to sin-(2/3)
B : Equal to or less than sin-(3/5)
C : Equal to or greater than sin-(3/4)
D : Less than sin-(2/3)

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Solution :
µ1 = c/v1 =2
µ2 = c/v2 =3/2
For TIR sin i ≥ sin C
sin C= µ2 / µ1 sin i ≥ µ21 ≥ (3/2)/2
Equal to or greater than sin-(3/4)

•   Question 9

A ray of light is incident on a 60° prism at the minimum deviation position. The angle of refraction at the first face (i.e., incident face) of the prism is

A : 0
B : 30°
C : 45°
D : 60°

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Solution :
Angle of prism, A = r1 + r2 For minimum deviation r1 = r2 = r
A = 2r
Given, A= 60°
so r = A/2 =30°

•   Question 10

For transistor action
(1) Base, emitter and collector regions should have similar size and doping concentrations.
(2) The base region must be very thin and lightly doped.
(3) The emitter-base junction is forward biased and base-collector junction is reverse biased
(4) Both the emitter-base junction as well as the base-collector junction are forward biased

A : 4 and 1
B : 1 and 2
C : 2 and 3
D : 3 and 4

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•   Question 11

The additional kinetic energy to be provided to a satellite of mass m revolving around a planet of mass M, to transfer it from a circular orbit of radius R1 to another of radius R2 (R2 > R1) is

A : GmM(1/R12 - 1/R22 )
B : GmM(1/R1 - 1/R2 )
C : 2GmM(1/R1 - 1/R2 )
D : 1/2 *GmM(1/R1 - 1/R2 )

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Solution :
KE = (-GmM/2R2) - (-GmM/2R1)

•   Question 12

The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is half of its initial speed. The angle of projection is(in deg)

A : 60
B : 15
C : 45
D : 60

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Solution :
v= ucosΘ
given v = u/2
u/2 = ucosΘ

•   Question 13

Froma circular disc of radius Randmass 9M, a small disc ofmassMand radius R/3 is removed concentrically. The moment of inertia of the remaining disc about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the disc and passing through its centre is

A : 40/9 * MR2
B : MR2
C : 4MR2
D : 4/9 * MR2

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Solution :
Themoment of inertia of the complete disc about an axis passing through its centre O and perpendicular to its plane is
I1 = 9/2 * MR2
I2 = 1/18 * MR2
I = I1 - I2

•   Question 14

A particle moves in x-y plane according to rule x = asin wt and y = acos wt. The particle follows

A : an elliptical path
B : a circular path
C : a parabolic path
D : a straight line path inclined equally to x and y-axes

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Solution :
x/a = sin wt
\ y/a = cos wt
square and add the 2 equations and get equation of circle

•   Question 15

A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross-section 1.5 * 10-?4 m2 carries a current of 2.0 A. It is suspended through its centre and perpendicular to its length, allowing it to turn in a horizontal plane in a uniform magnetic field 5 * 10?-?2 tesla making an angle of 30° with the axis of the solenoid. The torque on the solenoid will be

A : 3 * 10 -3 Nm
B : 1.5 * 10 -3 Nm
C : 1.5 * 10 -2 Nm
D : 3 * 10 -2 Nm

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Solution :
Magnetic moment of the loop.
M = NIA = 2000 * 2 * 1.5 * 10-?4 = 0.6 J/T
torque t = MBsin30°

•   Question 16

The decay constant of a radio isotope is λ. If A1 and A2 are its activities at times t1 and t2 respectively, the number of nuclei which have decayed during the time (t1 ? t2)

A : A1t1 - A2t2
B : A1 - A2
C : (A1 - A2) /λ
D : λ/(A1 - A2)

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Solution :
(A1 = λN1 at t1
(A2 = λN2 at t2
Therefore, number of nuclei decayed during time interval (t1-t2) is
N1 - N2 =[A1-A2]/λ

•   Question 17

A particle having a mass of 10-?2 kg carries a charge of 5 * 10?-8 C. The particle is given an initial horizontal velocity of 105 ms?-?1 in the presence of electric field E and magnetic field B. To keep the particle moving in a horizontal direction, it is necessary that
(i) B should be perpendicular to the direction of velocity and E should be along the direction of velocity (ii) Both B and E should be along the direction of velocity
(iii) Both B and E are mutually perpendicular and perpendicular to the direction of velocity.
(iv) B should be along the direction of velocity and E should be perpendicular to the direction of velocity
Which one of the following pairs of statements is possible

A : i and iii
B : iii and iv
C : ii and iii
D : ii and iv

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•   Question 18

The binding energy per nucleon in deuterium and helium nuclei are 1.1 MeV and 7.0 MeV, respectively. When two deuterium nuclei fuse to form a helium nucleus the energy released in the fusion is

A : 23.6MeV
B : 2.2MeV
C : 28.0MeV
D : 30.2MeV

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Solution :
The binding energy per nucleon of a deuteron = 1.1 MeV
so Total binding energy = 2 * 1.1 = 2.2 MeV
so The binding energy per nucleon of a helium nuclei = 7 MeV
so Total binding energy = 4 * 7 = 28 MeV
so Hence, energy released
ΔE = (28 ? 2 * 2.2) = 23.6 MeV

•   Question 19

The electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from excited state (n = 3) to its ground state (n = 1) and the photons thus emitted irradiate a photosensitive material. If the work function of the material is 5.1 eV, the stopping potential is estimated to be (the energy of the electron in nth state En = -13.6/n2 eV

A : 5.1 V
B : 12.1V
C : 17.2V
D : 7V

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Solution :
Energy released when electron in the atom jumps from excited state (n = 3) to ground state (n = 1) is
E = hv
E3 - E1 = 12.1eV
therefore stopping potential
eV0 = hv - φ
=12.1-5.1
V0 = 7V

•   Question 20

If cp and cv denote the specific heats (per unit mass) of an ideal gas of molecular weight M where R is the molecular weight constant, then

A : cp-cv = R/M2
B : cp - cv = R
C : cp - cv =R/M
D : cp - cv = MR

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Solution :
Let CV and CP be molar specific heats of the ideal gas at constant volume and constant pressure, respectively, then
CP = Mcp and CV = Mcv
CP-CV = R
Mcp - Mcv = R
cp - cv =R/M

•   Question 21

A condenser of capacity C is charged to a potential difference of V1. The plates of the condenser are then connected to an ideal inductor of inductance L. The current through the inductor when the potential difference across the condenser reduces to V2 is

A : ( (C(V1 - V2)2)/L )1/2
B : C(V12 - V22)/L
C : C(V12 - V22)/L
D : (C(V12 - V22)/L )1/2

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•   Question 22

The dependence of acceleration due to gravity g on the distance r from the centre of the earth, assumed to be a sphere of radius R of uniform density is as shown in figures below. The correct figure is.

A : B :
C : D :

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Solution :
The acceleration due to gravity at a depth d below surface of earth is
g'=GM/R2 (1 - d/R) = g(1 - d/R)
g' = 0 at d = R acceleration due to gravity is zero at the centre of earth . Thus, the variation in value g with r is for, r > R,
g' ∝ 1/r2
Here, R + h =r
rg'=gr/R
here R-d = r
g' ∝ r
Therefore, the variation of g with distance from centre of the earth will be as shown in the figure.

•   Question 23

Asolid cylinder and a hollow cylinder, both of the samemass and same external diameter are relaeased from the same height at the same time on an inclined plane. Both roll down without slipping.Which one will reach the bottom first ?

A : Both together only when angle of inclination of plane is 45°
B : Both together
C : Hollow cylinder
D : Solid cylinder

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Solution :
time taken to reach the bottom of inclined plane
t = √(2l(1 + K2/R2)/gsinΘ)
here l is the length of the incline plane
For solid cylinder K2 =R2/2
For Hollow cylinder = K2 =R2
Hence, solid cylinder will reach the bottom first.

•   Question 24

The thermo e.m.f. E in volts of a certain thermocouple is found to vary with temperature difference Θ in °C between the two junctions according to the relation
E = 30Θ - Θ2/15
The neutral temperature for the thermo-couple will be

A : 450°
B : 400°
C : 225°
D : 30°

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Solution :
E = 30Θ - Θ2/15
dE/dΘ = 0;
dE/dΘ = 30 -2Θ/15
Θ=15*30/2 =225°C

•   Question 25

(i) Centre of gravity (C.G.) of a body is the point at which the weight of the body acts
(ii) Centre of mass coincides with the centre of gravity if the earth is assumed to have infinitely large radius
(iii) To evaluate the gravitational field intensity due to any body at an external point, the entire mass of the body can be considered to be concentrated at its C.G.
(iv) The radius of gyration of any body rotating about an axis is the length of the perpendicular dropped from the C.G. of the body to the axis.
Which one of the following pairs of statements is correct ?

A : iv and i
B : i and ii
C : ii and iii
D : iii and iv

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•   Question 26

The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atom is

A : much greater than one
B : one
C : between zero and one
D : equal to zero

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Solution :
The magnetic momentum of a diamagnetic atom is equal to zero.

•   Question 27

Two identical bar magnets are fixed with their centres at a distance d apart. a stationary charge Q is placed at P in between the gap of the two magnets at a distance D from the centre O as shown in the figure
The force on the charge Q is?

A : Zero
B : directed along OP
C : directed along PO
D : directed perpendicular to the plane of paper

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Solution :
Magnetic field due to bar magnets exerts force on moving charges only. Since the charge is at rest, zero force acts on it.

•   Question 28

Aparticle ofmass M, starting from rest, undergoes uniform acceleration. If the speed acquired in time T is V, the power delivered to the particle is

A : MV2/T
B : 1/2 * MV2/T2
C : MV2/T2
D : 1/2 * MV2/T

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Solution :
Power delivered in time T is
P = F.V. = MaV
P = MVdV/dT
PT=MV2/2

•   Question 29

A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating about its axis with constant angular velocity ?. Two objects each of mass m are attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter of the ring. The ring now rotates with angular velocity given by

A : (M + 2m)w/2m
B : 2Mw/(M+2m)
C : (M+2m)w/M
D : Mw/(M+2m)

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Solution :
As no external toruqe is acting about the axis, angular momentum of system remains conserved.
I1w1 = I2w2
w2 = Mw/(M+2m)

•   Question 30

A monoatomic gas at pressure P1 and volume V1 is compressed adiabatically to 1/8th of its original volume. What is the final pressure of the gas

A : 64P1
B : P1
C : 16P1
D : 32P1

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Solution :
Ideal gas equation, for an adiabatic process is
PVγ = constant
P1V1γ =P2V2γ
For monoatomic gas γ =5/3;
P1V15/3 = P2(V1/8 5/3)

•   Question 31

Among the elements Ca, Mg, P and Cl, the order of increasing atomic radii is :

A : Mg < Ca < Cl < P
B : Cl < P < Mg < Ca
C : P < Cl < Ca < Mg
D : Ca < Mg < P < Cl

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Solution :
The atomic radii decreases on moving from left to right in a period, thus order of sizes for Cl, P and Mg is Cl < P < Mg. Down the group size increases. Thus overall order is : Cl < P < Mg < Ca.

•   Question 32

The reaction,is begun with the concentrations of A and B both at an initial value of 1.00 M. When equilibrium is reached, the concentration of D is measured and found to be 0.25 M. The value for the equilibrium constant for this reaction is given by the expression :

A : [(0.75)3 (0.25)] / [(1.00)2 (1.00)]
B : [(0.75)3 (0.25)] /[(0.50)2 (0.75)]
C : [(0.75)3 (0.25)] / [(0.50)2 (0.25)]
D : [(0.75)3 (0.25)] / [(0.75)2 (0.25)]

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•   Question 33

Which of the following expressions correctly represents the equivalent conductance at infinite dilution of Al2(SO4)3. Given that ÅAl3+ and ÅSO42- are the equivalent conductances at infinite dilution of the respective ions?

A : Al3+ + 3ÅSO42-
B : ÅAl3+ + ÅSO42-
C : Al3+ + 3ÅSO42-) * 6
D : 1/3 ÅAl3 + 1/2 + ÅSO42-

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Solution :
At infinite dilution, when dissociation is complete, each ion makes a definite contribution towards molar conductance of the electrolyte irrespective of the nature of the other ion with which it is associated

•   Question 34

The pressure exerted by 6.0 g of methane gas in a 0.03m3 vessel at 129° C is (Atomic masses) : C = 12.01, H = 1.01 and R = 8.314 J K-?1 mol?-1) :

A : 215216Pa
B : 13409Pa
C : 41648Pa
D : 31684Pa

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Solution :
T = 129°C = 129 + 273 = 402 K
V = 0.03m3
Molecular mass of CH4, M = 12.01 + 4 * 1.01 = 16.05
PV = nRT = RTw/M
P=41647.7 Pa

•   Question 35

Match List I (Equations) with List II (Types of processes) and select the correct option.
 List 1 Equations List II Types of process a)Kp > Q i)Non-spontaneous b)ΔG° < RT In Q ii)Equilibrium c)Kp = Q iii)Spontaneous and endothermic d)T = ΔH/ΔS vi)Spontaneous

A : a - (i), b - (ii), c - (iii), d - (iv)
B : a - (iii), b - (iv), c - (ii), d - (i)
C : a - (iv), (b -(i), c - (ii), d - (iii)
D : a - (ii), b - (i), c - (iv), d - (iii)

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Solution :
When Kp > Q, rate of forward reaction > rate of backward reaction.
Reaction is spontaneous. When ΔG° < RT ln Q, ΔG° is positive, reverse reaction is feasible, thus reaction is non-spontaneous.
When Kp = Q, rate of forward reaction = rate of backward reaction
Reaction is in equilibrium. When TΔS > ΔH, ΔG will be negative only when ΔH = + ve

•   Question 36

Among the following four compounds :
(i) Phenol
(ii) Methyl phenol
(iii)Meta-nitrophenol
(iv) Para-nitrophenol
The acidity order is :

A : (iv) > (iii) > (i) > (ii)
B : (iii) > (iv) > (i) > (ii)
C : (i) > (iv) > (iii) > (ii)
D : (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv)

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Solution :
In phenols, the presence of electron releasing groups decreases the acidity, whereas presence of electron withdrawing groups increase the acidity, compared to phenol. Among the meta and para-nitrophenols, the latter is more acidic as the present of -NO2 group at para position stabilises the phenoxide ion to a greater extent than when it is present at meta position.

•   Question 37

Among the following which one has the highest cation to anion size ratio?

A : CsI
B : CsF
C : LiF
D : NaF

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Solution :
The order of size of given cations is Li+ < Na+ < Cs+ and the order of size of given anions is I?- > F-? Thus, when the cation is large and anion is smallest, the cation to anion size ratio is maximum. Hence, cation to anion size ratio is maximum for CsF.

•   Question 38

Three moles of an ideal gas expanded spontaneously into vacuum. The work done will be :

A : Infinite
B : 3 Joules
C : 9 Joules
D : Zero

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Solution :
Since the ideal gas expands spontaneously into vacuum, Pext = 0, hence work done is also zero.

•   Question 39

Which of the following species is not electrophilic in nature?

A : B :
C : D :

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Solution :
Electrophiles are electron deficient species.Among the given, 3) has lone pair of electrons for donation, thus it is not electron deficient and hence, does not behave like an electrophile.

•   Question 40

A 0.66 kg ball is moving with a speed of 100 m/s. The associated wavelength will be : (h = 6.6 * 10-?34 Js)

A : 6.6 * 10-?32
B : 6.6 * 10-?34
C : 1.0 * 10-?35
D : 1.0 * 10-?32

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Solution :
use de-Broglie equation, λ = h/mv

•   Question 41

Consider the following relations for emf of an electrochemical cell :
(i) EMF of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode)-(Reduction potential of cathode)
(ii) EMF of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) + (Reduction potential of cathode)
(iii) EMF of cell = (Reduction potential of anode) + (Reduction potential of cathode)
(iv) EMF of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode)-(Oxidation potential of cathode) Which of the above relations are correct

A : iii and i
B : i and ii
C : iii and iv
D : ii and iv

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Solution :
EMF of a cell = Reduction potential of cathode-Reduction potential of anode = Reduction potential of cathode + Oxidation potential of anode = Oxidation potential of anode-Oxidation potential of cathode.

•   Question 42

In which of the following molecules, the central atom does not have sp3 hybridization?

A : CH4
B : SF4
C : BF4-
D : NH4+

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Solution :
For SF4, no. of e-? pairs = 4 + 1/2[6 4]= 5 (sp3d hybridisation)

•   Question 43

For vaporization of water at 1 atmospheric pressure, the values of ΔH and ΔS are 40.63 kJ mol?-1 and 108.8 JK-11 mol?-1, respectively. The temperature when Gibb's energy change (ΔG) for this transformation will be zero, is :

A : 273.4
B : 393.4K
C : 373.4K
D : 293.4K

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Solution :
ΔG = ΔH - TΔS
when T= ΔH/ΔS = 40.63 *103/108.8 = 373.43

•   Question 44

Match List I (substances) with List II (processes) employed in the manufacture of the substances and select the correct option :
 List 1 Substances List II Process Sulphuric acid Haber's process Steel Bessemer's process Sodium hydroxide Leblanc process Ammonia Contact process

A : a - (i), b- (iv), c- (ii), d- (iii)
B : a- (i), b- (ii), c- (iii), d- (iv)
C : a - (iv), b - (iii), c - (ii), d - (i)
D : a- (iv), b - (ii), c - (iii), d - (i)

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•   Question 45

When glycerol is treated with excess of HI, it produces :

A : 2-iodopropane
B : allyl iodide
C : propene
D : glycerol triiodide

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•   Question 46

Some statements about heavywater are given below :
(i) Heavy water is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors.
(ii) Heavywater is more associated than ordinary water.
(iii) Heavywater ismore effective solvent than ordinarywater.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A : i and ii
B : i,ii and iii
C : ii and iii
D : i and iii

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Solution :
Heavywater is used for slowing down the speed of neutrons in nuclear reactors, hence used asmoderators. Boiling point of heavy water is greater (374.42 K) than that of ordinary water (373 K), hence heaver water is more associated. Dielectric constant of ordinary water is greater than that of heavy water, hence ordinary water is a better solvent.

•   Question 47

The compound A on heating gives a colourless gas and a residue that is dissolved in water to obtain B. Excess of CO2 is bubbled through aqueous solution of B, C is formed which is recovered in the solid form. Solid C on gentle heating gives back A. The compound A is :

A : CaCO3
B : Na2CO3
C : K2CO3
D : CaSO4.2H2O

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•   Question 48

Match the compounds given in List I with their characteristic reactions given in List II. Select the correct option.

A : a-(ii), b - (i), c - (iv), d- (iii)
B : a - (iii), b - (ii), c - (i), d - (iv)
C : a - (ii), b - (iii), c - (i), d - (iv)
D : a - (iv), b - (ii), c - (iii), d - (i)

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•   Question 49

Which one of the following compounds will be most readily dehydrated?

A : B :
C : D :

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Solution :
The ease of dehydration of the given compounds can be explained on the basis of the stability of the carbocation formed. In case of options (1), (2) and (4), a secondary carbocation is formed but the presence of an electron withdrawing > C = O group adjacent to the positively charged carbon, intensifies the charge & hence destabilies the species.
However, in case of option (c), a secondary carbocation is formed, but the electron withdrawing > C = O group is present away, as a farther

•   Question 50

The rate of reaction
2NO + Cl2 → 2NOCl is given by the rate equation rate = k[NO]2[Cl]2.The value the rate of constant can be increased by :

A : increasing the temperature
B : increasing the concentration of NO
C : increasing the concentration of the Cl2
D : doing all of above

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Solution :
Rate constant is independent of the initial concentration of the reactants. It has a constant value at fixed temperature. Hence the value of rate constant can be increased by increasing the temperature.

•   Question 51

Which of the following complexes is not expected to exhibit isomerism?

A : [Ni(NH3)4(H2O)2]2+
B : [Pt(NH3))2Cl2]
C : [Ni(NH3))2Cl2]
D : [Ni(en3)]2+

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Solution :
3 has tetrahedral geometry and thus, does not exhibit isomerism due to presence of symmetry elements.

•   Question 52

Which of the following conformers for ethylene glycol is most stable?

A : B :
C : D :

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Solution :
The conformation (4) is most stable because of intermolecular H - bonding.

•   Question 53

The IUPAC name of the compound

A : Pent-4-yn-2-ene
B : Pent-3-en-1-yne
C : Pent-2-en-4-yne
D : Pent-1-yn-3-ene

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•   Question 54

Which of the following oxidation states is the most common among the lanthanoids?

A : 4
B : 2
C : 5
D : 3

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Solution :
The common stable oxidation state of all the lanthanoids is + 3.

•   Question 55

How many bridging oxygen atoms are present in P4O10?

A : 6
B : 4
C : 2
D : 5

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•   Question 56

Some of the properties of the two species, NO3- and H3O+ are described below. Which one of them is correct?

A : Dissimilar in hybridization for the central atom with different structures
B : Isostructural with same hybridization for the central atom
C : Isostructural with different hybridization for the central atom
D : Similar in hybridiation for the central atom with different structures

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Solution :
In NO3- = H = 1/2[5+0-0+1]=3
In H3O+
H = 1/2[6+3-1+0]=4

•   Question 57

The following two reactions are known

A : +10.3kJ
B : -43.3kJ
C : -10.3kJ
D : +6.2kJ

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•   Question 58

Following compounds are given

A : (i), (iii) and (iv)
B : Only (ii)
C : (i), (ii) and (iii)
D : (i) and (ii)

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•   Question 59

Fructose reduces Tollen's reagent due to :

A : Asymmetric carbons
B : Primary alcoholic groups
C : Secondary alcoholic group
D : Enolisation of fructose followed by conversion to aldehyde by base

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Solution :
In aqueous solution, fructose is enolised and then converted into aldehyde in basic medium. All aldehydes generally reduce Tollen's reagent, thus fructose also reduces Tollen's reagent

•   Question 60

In the following reaction

A : C6H5CH2OCH2C6H5
B : C6H5CH2OH
C : C6H5CH3
D : C6H5CH2CH2C6H5

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•   Question 61

Which one of the following is manoecious

A : Date palm
B : Marchantia
C : Cyas
D : Pinus

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•   Question 62

Jaundice is disorder of

A : Circulatory system
B : Excretory system
C : Skin and eyes
D : Digestive system

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•   Question 63

Given below are four statements (A-D) each with one or two blanks. Select the option which correctly fills up the blanks in two.

Statements : (A) Wings of butterfly and birds look alike and are the results of ______(i)______, evolution
(B) Miller showed that CH4, H2, NH3 and _____(i)_____, when exposed to electric discharge in a flask resulted in formation of _______(ii)______
(C) Vermiform appendix is a _______(i)_____ organ and an _______(ii)______ evidence of evolution.
(D) According to Darwin evolution took place due to _______(i)______ and ______(ii)_______ of the fittest

A : (C)(i) vestigial,(ii) anatomical,
(D) (i) mutations,(ii) multiplication

B : (D)(i) small variation, (ii) survival,
(A)(i) convergent

C : (A)(i) convergent,
(B)(i)oxygen, (ii)nucleosides

D : (B)(i) water vapour, (ii) amino acids,
(C) ? (i) rudimentary (ii) anatomical

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•   Question 64

In eukaryotic cell transcription, RNA splicaing and RNA capping take place inside the

A : ER
B : Ribosomes
C : Nucleus
D : Dictyosomes

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•   Question 65

Select the correct matching of a hormone, its source and function

A :
B :
C :
D :
 Hormone Source Function Prolactin Posterior pituitary Regulates growth of mammary glands and milk formation in females Vasopression Posterior pituitary Increases loss of water through urine Norepinephrine Adrenal medulla Increases heart beat, rate of respiration and alertness Glucagon Beta-cells of lslets of langerhans Stimulates glycogenolysis

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•   Question 66

A cross in which an organism showing a dominant phenotype crosed with the recessive parent in order to know its genotype is called

A : Dihybrid cross
B : Monohybrid cross
C : Back cross
D : Test cross

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•   Question 67

A person suffering from a disease caused by Plasmodium, experinces recurring chill and fever at the time when

A : The microgametocytes and megagametocytes are being destoryed by the WBCs.
B : The sporozoites released from RBCs are being rapidly killed and broken down inside spleen.
C : The trophyzoitges reach maximum growth and give out certain toxins
D : The parasite after its rapid multiplicaiton inside RBCs ruptures them, releasing the stage to enter fresh RBCs.

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•   Question 68

Select the correct combination of the statements (a-d) regarding the characteristics of certain organisms.
(a) Methanogens are archaebacteria which producemethane inmarshy areas
(b) Notoc is a filamentous blue-green alga which fixes atmospheric nitrogen
(c) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesize cellulose form glucose
(d) Mycoplasma lack a cell wall and can survive wihout oxygen. The correct statemetns are

A : (a), (b), (d)
B : (b), (c)
C : (a), (b), (c)
D : (b), (c), (d)

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•   Question 69

Read the following four statements,A, B, C and D and select the right option having both correct statements.
(A) Z scheme of light reaction takes place in presence of PSI only
(B) Only PSI is functional in cyclic photophosphorylaiton.
(C) Cyclic photophosphorylation results into synthesis of ATP and NADPH2
(D) Stroma lamellae lack PSII as well as NADP.

A : C and D
B : B and D
C : A and B
D : B and C

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•   Question 70

Which one of the following techniques is safest for the detection of cancers

A : Histopathological studies
B : Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
D : Computed tomography (CT)

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•   Question 71

Select the answer with correct matching of the structure, its location and function

A :
B :
C :
D :
 Structure Location Function Blind spot Near the place where optic nerve leaves the eye Rods and cones are present but inactive here Eustachian tube Anterior part of internal ear Equalizes air pressure on either sides of tympanic membrane Cerebellum Mid brain Controls respiration and ganieie Hypothalamus Fore brain Controls Body temperature, urge for eating and drinking

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•   Question 72

Identify the components labelled A, B, C and D in the diagram below from the list (i) to (viii) given with.
Components :
(i) Cristae ofmitochondria
(ii) Inner membrane of mitochondria
(iii) Cytoplasm
(iv) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(v) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(vi)Mitochondrial matrix
(vii) Cell vacuole
(viii) Nucleus
The correct components A,B,C,D respectively are

A : (v) (i) (iii) (ii)
B : (v) (iv) (viii) (iii)
C : (i) (iv) (viii) (vi)
D : (vi) (v) (iv) (vii)

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•   Question 73

Signals from fully developed foetus and placenta ultimately lead to parturition which requires the release of

A : Ralaxin from placenta
B : Estrogen from placenta
C : Oxytocin from maternal pituitary
D : Oxytocin from foetal pituitary

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•   Question 74

Consider the following four statements A, B, C and D select the right option for two correct statements.
Statements :

A : C and D
B : A and C
C : A and B
D : B and C

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•   Question 75

The most apparent change during the evloutionary history of Homo sapiens is traced in

A : Remarkable increase in the brains size
B : Companion cells
C : Transfusion cells
D : Tracheids

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•   Question 76

Crocodile and Penguin are similar toWhale and Dogfish in which one of the following features

A : Have gill slits at some stage
B : Possess a solid single stranded central nerovous system
C : Lay eggs and guard them till they hatch
D : Possess bony skeleton

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•   Question 77

The Indian Rhinoceros is a natural inhabitant of which one of the Indian states

A : Assam
B : Uttarakhand

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•   Question 78

In Antirrhinum two plants with pink flowers were hybridized. The F1 plants produced red, pink and white flowers in the proportion of 1 red, 2 pink and 1 white.What could be the genotype of the two plants used for hybridization? Red flower colour is determined by RR, and white by rr genes

A : rr
B : rrr
C : RR
D : Rr

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•   Question 79

Fastest distribution of some injectible material / medicine and with no risk of any kind can be achieved by injecting it into the

A : Lymph vessels
B : Muscles
C : Arteries
D : Veins

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•   Question 80

Which one of the following is most appropriately defined

A : Parasite is an organism which always lives inside the body of other organism and may kill it.
B : Host is an organism which provides food to another organism
C : Amensalism is a relationship in which one species is benefited where as the other is unaffected.
D : Predator is an organism that catches and kills other organism for for food.

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•   Question 81

Kranz anatomy is one of the characteristics of the leaves of

A : Mustard
B : Potato
C : Wheat
D : Sugarcane

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•   Question 82

The fruit flyDrosophilamelanogaster was found to be very suitbable for experimental verification of chromosomal theory of inheritance byMorgan and his colleagues because

A : It completes life cycle in about two weeks
B : It reproduces parthenogenetically
C : A single mating produces two young flies
D : Smaller female is easily recognisable from larger male

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•   Question 83

Leguminous plants are able to fix atmospheric nitrogen through the process of symbiotic nitrogen fixation. Which one of the following statements is not correct during this process of nitrogen fixation

A : Nitrogenase is insensitive to oxygen
B : Leghaemoglobin scavenges oxygen and is pinkish in colour
C : Nodules act as sites nitrogen fixation
D : The enzyme nitrogenase catalyses the conversion of atmospheric N2 to NH3

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•   Question 84

Which one of the following can not be used for preparation of vaccines against plague

A : Heat-Killed suspensions of virulent bacteria
B : Formalin-inactivated suspensions of virulent bacteria
C : Avirulent live baeteria
D : Synthetic capsular polysaccharide material

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•   Question 85

One of the commonly used plant growth hormone in tea plantations is

A : Indole-3-acetic acid
B : Ethylene
C : Abscisic acid
D : Zeatin

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•   Question 86

The haemoglobin content per 100 ml of blood of a normal healthy adult is

A : 12 - 16 g
B : 5 - 11 g
C : 25 - 30 g
D : 17 - 20 g

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•   Question 87

Black (stem) rust of wheat is caused by

A : Xanthomonas oryzae
B : Alternaria solani
C : Ustilago nuda
D : Puccinia graminis

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•   Question 88

In human female the blastocyst

A : Gets implanted in endometrium by the trophoblast cells
B : Forms placenta even before implantation
C : Gets implanted into uterus 3 days after ovulation
D : gets nutrition from uterine endometrial secretion only after implantation

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•   Question 89

Which of the following are used in gene cloning

A : Plamids
B : Nucleoids
C : Lomasomes
D : Mesosomes

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•   Question 90

ABO blood grouping is controlled by gene I which has three alleles and show co-dominance. There are six genotypes. How many phenotypes in all are possible

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•   Question 91

Given below are four statements (a-d) regarding human blood circulatory system
(a)Arteries are thick-walled and have narrow lumen as compared to veins
(b) Angina is acute chest pain when the blood ciruclation of the brain is reduced
(c) Persons with blood group AB can donate blood to any person with any blood group under ABO system
(d) Calcium ions play a very important role in blood clotting
Which two of the above statements are correct

A : c and d
B : a and d
C : a and b
D : b and c

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•   Question 92

Vegetative propagation in Pistia occurs by

A : Sucker
B : Stolen
C : Offset
D : Runner

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•   Question 93

Which one of the following pairs of structure is correctly matched with their correct description

A : Premolars and molars = 20 in all and 3-rooted
B : Tibia and fibula = Both form parts of knee joint
C : Cartilage and cornea = No blood supply but do require oxygen for respiratory need
D : Shoulder joint and elbow joint = Ball and socket type of joint

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•   Question 94

Secretions from which one of the following are rich in fructose, calcium and some enzymes

A : Salivary glands
B : Male accessory glands
C : Liver
D : Pancreas

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•   Question 95

When domestic sewagemixes with river water

A : The river water is still suitable for drinking as impurities only about 0.1%
B : Small animals like rats will die after drinking river water
C : The increasedmicrobial activity releases micro-nutrients such as iron
D : The increasedmicrobial activity uses up dissolved oxygen

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•   Question 96

Three of the following statements about enzymes are correct and one is wrong which one is wrong

A : Most enzymes are proteins but some are lipids
B : Enzymes require optimum pH for maximal activity
C : Enzymes are denatured at high temperatures but in certain exceptional organisms they are effective even at tempreatures 80°- 90°C
D : Enzymes are highly specific

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•   Question 97

Root development is promoted by

A : Ethylene
B : Abscisic acid
C : Auxin
D : Gibberellin

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•   Question 98

In which one of the following organisms its excretory organs are correctly stated

A : Frog-Kidneys, skin and buccal epithelium
B : Humans-Kidneys, sebaceous glands and tear glands
C : Earthworm-Pharyngeal, integumentary and septal nephridia
D : Cockroach-Malpighian tubules and enteric caeca

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•   Question 99

If for some reason the pariental cells of the gut epithelium become partially nonfunctional, what is likely to happen.

A : Proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin into proteoses and peptones
B : The pancreatic enzymes and specially the trypsin and lipase will not work efficiently
C : The pH of stomach will fall abruptly
D : Steapsin will bemore effective

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•   Question 100

Which one of the following is now being commercially produced by biotechnological procedures

A : Insulin
B : Nicotine
C : Morphine
D : Quinine

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•   Question 101

Transport of foodmaterial in higher plants takes place through

A : Sieve elements
B : Companion cells
C : Transfusion cells
D : Tracheids

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•   Question 102

The figure given below shows the conversion of a substrate into produced by an enzyme. In which one of the four option (1-4) the components of reaction labelled as A, B, C and D are identified correctly respectively.

A : Activation energy with enzyme, Transition state, Activation energy without enzyme, Potential energy
B : Potential energy,Transition state, Activation energy with enzyme, Activation energy without enzyme
C : Transition state,Potential energy, Activation energy without enzyme, Activation energy with enzyme
D : Potential energy,Transition state, Activation energy with enzyme, Activation energy without enzyme

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•   Question 103

An eleborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures present in the cytoplasm which helps in the maintenance of cell shape is called.

A : Cytoskeleton
B : Thylakoid
C : Endosplasmic Reticulum
D : Plasmalemma

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•   Question 104

Given below is the diagram of a stomatal apparatus. In which of the folloiwng all the four parts Labelled asA, B, C and D are correctly identified.(respectively)

A : Epidermal cell,Subsidiary cell,Stomatal aperture,Guard cell
B : Subsidiary cell,Epidermal cell,Guard cell,Stomatal aperture
C : Guard cell,Stomatal aperture,Subsidiary cell,Epidermal cell
D : Epidermal cell,Guard cell,Stomatal aperture,Subsidiary cell

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•   Question 105

Which one of the following statements about the particular entity is true.

A : DNA consists of a core of eight histones
B : Centromere is found in animal cells, which produces aster during cell division
C : The gene for producing insulin is present in every body cell
D : Nucleosome is formed of nucleotides

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•   Question 106

Study the pathway given below In which of the following options correct words for all the three blanks A, B and C are indicated

A : Carboxylation,Decarboxylation,Reduction
B : Decarboxylaiton,Reduction,Regeneration
C : Fixation,Transamination,Regeneration
D : Fixation,Decrboxylaiton,Regeneration

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•   Question 107

Which one of the following is a xerophytic plant in which the stem ismodified into a flat, green and succulent structure

A : Acacia
B : Opuntia
C : Casuarina
D : Hydrilla

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•   Question 108

Examine the figures A, B, C and D. In which one of the four options all the items, A, B, C and D are correct

B : Chara,Marchantia,Fucus,Pinus
C : Equisetum,Ginkgo,Selaginella,Lycopodium
D : Selaginella,Equisetum,Salvinia,Ginkgo

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•   Question 109

The lac operon consists of

A : Three regulatory genes and three structural genes
B : Four regulatory genes only
C : One regulatory gene and three structural genes
D : Two regulatory genes and two structural genes

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•   Question 110

Given below is the diagram of a bacteriophage. In which one of the options all the four partsA, B,C and D are correct.

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•   Question 111

Which one of the following is the the correct description of a certain part of a normal human skeleton

A : Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the thigh bone articulates
B : Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull are joined by fibrous joint
C : First vertebra is axis which articulates with the occipital condyles
D : The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the floating ribs

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•   Question 112

An example of endomycorrhiza is

A : Rhizobium
B : Nostoc
C : Glomus
D : Agaricus

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•   Question 113

Aestivation of petals in the flower of cotton is correctly shown is

A : B :
C : D :

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•   Question 114

Examine the figures (A-D) given below and select the right option out of 1-4, in which all the four structures A, B, C and D are identified correctly.

A : Sucker,Seta, Megaspore mother cell, Gemma cup
B : Rhizome,Sporangiophore,Polar cell, Globule
C : Runner,Archegoniophore,Synergid, Antheridium
D : Offset,Antheridiophore,Antipodals, Oogonium

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•   Question 115

Which of the following representations shows the pyramid of number in a forest ecosystem

A : C
B : D
C : A
D : B

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•   Question 116

Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given below and select the correct conclusion which can be drawn for the character

A : The male parent is homozygous dominant
B : The female parent is heterozygous
C : The parents could not have had a normal daughter for this character
D : The trait under study could not be colour-blindness.

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•   Question 117

The correct floral formula of soyabean is

A : B :
C : D :

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•   Question 118

The 3'-5' phosphodiester linkages inside a polynucleotide chain serve to join

A : One nitrogenous base with pentose sugar
B : One DNA strand with the other DNA strand
C : One nucleoside with another nucleoside
D : One nucleotide with another nucleotide

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•   Question 119

In genetic engineering, a DNA segment (gene) of interest, is transferred to the host cell through a vector. Consider the following four agents (A-D) in this regard and select the correct option about which one or more of these can be used as a vector/vectors:
(A) a bacterium
(B) plasmid
(C) plasmodium
(D) bacteriophage

A : B abd D
B : A,B and D
C : A only
D : A and C only

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