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  Question 1

If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by [MaLbTc], then the physical quantity will be :

A : Force if a = 0, b = -1, c = -2
B : Pressure if a = 1, b = -1, c = -2
C : Velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = -1
D : Acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = -2


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      [P] = F/A = [MLT-2/L2] = [ML-1T-2]

  •   Question 2

    A particle starts its motion from rest under the action of a constant force. If the distance covered in first 10 seconds is S1 and that covered in the first 20 seconds is S2 then :

    A : S2 = S1
    B : S2 = 2S1
    C : S2 = 3S1
    D : S2 = 4S1


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      s =1\2 * at2

  •   Question 3

    A bus is moving with a speed of 10ms-1 on a straight road. A scooterist wishes to overtake the bus in 100s. If the bus is at a distance of 1 km from the scooterist, with what speed should the scooterist chase the bus ?

    A : 10ms-1
    B : 20ms-1
    C : 40ms-1
    D : 25ms-1


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      Sr = vrt 1000 = (v - 10) * 100 v = 20 m/s

  •   Question 4

    The mass of lift is 2000 kg. When the tension in the supporting cable is 28000 N, then its acceleration is :

    A : 14 ms-2 upwards
    B : 30 ms-2 downwards
    C : 4 ms-2 upwards
    D : 4 ms-2 downwards


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      F = ma
    T - mg = ma
    a =(T- mg)/m
    =4 m/s2

  •   Question 5

    An explosion blows a rock into three parts Two parts go off at right angles to each other. These two are, 1 kg first part moving with a velocity of 12 ms-1 and 2 kg second part moving with a velocity of 8 ms-1. If the thirds part files off with a velocity of 4 ms-1, its mass would be :

    A : 3kg
    B : 5kg
    C : 7kg
    D : 17kg


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      P̃1 + P̃2 + P̃3 = 0
    |P̃3| =| P̃1 + P̃2| m * 4 = √(P12 + P22)

  •   Question 6

    A block of mass M is attached to the lower end of a vertical spring. The spring is hung from a ceiling and has force constant value k. The mass is released from rest with the spring initially unstretched. The maximum extension produced in the length of the spring will be

    A : Mg/2k
    B : Mg/k
    C : 2 Mg/k
    D : 4 Mg/k


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      Loss in grav. PE = gain in spring PE At maximum elongation
    Mgx =1/2 * kx2
    x = (2Mg)/k

  •   Question 7





    A : B :
    C : D :


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C



  •   Question 8

    Four identical thin rods each of mass M and length l, from a square frame. Moment of inertia of this frame about an axis through the centre of the square and perpendicular to its plane is :

    A : 1/3 Ml2
    B : 4/3 Ml2
    C : 2/3 Ml2
    D : 13/3 Ml2


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      I = 4 * [(Ml2)/12 + M(l/2)2] the parallel axis theorem =
    4/3 Ml2

  •   Question 9

    A thin circular ring of mass M and radius R is rotating in a horizontal plane about an axis vertical to its plane with a constant angular velocity w, If two objects each mass m be attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter of the ring, the ring, will then rotate with an angular velocity :

    A : wM/(M+m)
    B : w(M-2m)/(M+2m)
    C : w(M)/(M+2m)
    D : w(M + 2m)/(M)


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      Apply conservation of angular momentum
    Li= Lf
    MR2w = (M + 2m)R2w'
    w' = Mw/(M+2m)

  •   Question 10

    A body, under the action of a force F̃ = 6 î - 8 ĵ +10 k̂, acquires an acceleration of 1 m/s2. The mass of this body must be :

    A : 10 √2 kg
    B : 2 √10 kg
    C : 10 kg
    D : 20 kg


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A

     Solution :
      F̃ = 6 î - 8 ĵ +10 k̂
    |F|= √(62 + 82 +102)
    = 10 √2
    m= |F|/1 = 10 √2 kg

  •   Question 11

    If F̃ is the force acting on a particle having position vector r̃ and t̃ be the torque of this force about the origin, then :

    A : r̃. t̃ = 0 and F̃. t̃ != 0
    B : r̃. t̃ != 0 and F̃. t̃ = 0
    C : r̃. t̃ > 0 and F̃. t̃ < 0
    D : r̃ . t̃ = 0 and F̃. t̃ = 0


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      t̃ is perpendicular to r̃ and F̃

  •   Question 12

    The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is twice the shaded are SAB. It t1 is the time for the planet to move from C to D and t2 is the time to move from A to B then



    A : t1 = t2
    B : t1 > t2
    C : t1 = 4t2
    D : t1 = 2t2


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      Kepler's 2nd law
    A1 / t1 = A2 / t2
    2A /t1 = A /t2

  •   Question 13

    An engine pumps water continuously through a hose. Water leaves the hose with a velocity v and m is the mass per unit length of the water jet. What is the rate which kinetic energy is imparted to water ?

    A : 1/2 m2v2
    B : 1/2 mv 3
    C : mv3
    D : 1/2 mv2


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B



  •   Question 14

    A body of mass 1 kg of thrown upwards with a velocity 20 m/s. It momenetarily comes to rest after attaining a height of 18m. How much energy is lost due to air friction ? (g = 10 m/s2)

    A : 10 J
    B : 20 J
    C : 30 J
    D : 40 J


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      Loss of energy =1/2 mv2 - mgh = 20 J

  •   Question 15

    The two ends of a rod of length L and a uniform cross-sectional area A are kept at two temperatures T1 and T2 (T1 > T2). The rate of heat transfer,dt/dQ , through the rod in a steady state is given by :

    A : dQ/dt =kA(T1 - T2 )/ L
    B : dQ/dt =kL(T1 - T2 )/ A
    C : dQ/dt =k(T1 - T2 )/ LA
    D : dQ/dt =kLA(T1 - T2 )


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A

     Solution :
      For steady state dQ/dt = kA(T1-T2)/L

  •   Question 16

    In thermodynamic processes which of the following statements is not true ?

    A : In an adiabatic process PV γ = constant
    B : In an adiabatic process the system is insulated from the surroundings
    C : In an isochoric process pressure remains constant
    D : In an isothermal process the temperature remains constant


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      Isochoric -> Volume constant

  •   Question 17

    A black body at 227°C radiates heat at the rate of 7 cals/cm2s. At a temperature of 727°C, the rate of heat radiated in the same units will be :

    A : 80
    B : 60
    C : 50
    D : 112


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      P directly proportional to T4
    P2 / P1 = (1000 /500)4

  •   Question 18

    The internal energy change in a system that has absorbed 2 k cal of heat and done 500 J of work is :

    A : 7900 J
    B : 8900 J
    C : 6400 J
    D : 5400 J


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A

     Solution :
      dU = Q - W = 8400 - 500 = 7900 J

  •   Question 19

    The driver of a car traveling with speed 30 m/sec towards a hill sounds a horn of frequency 600 Hz. If the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s, the frequency of reflected sound as heard by driver is :

    A : 500 Hz
    B : 550 Hz
    C : 555.5 Hz
    D : 720 Hz


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      n'=v((c+u)/(c-u))
    600(360/300) = 720

  •   Question 20

    A simple pendulum performs simple harmonic motion about x = 0 with an amplitude a and time period T. The speed of the pendulum at x = a/2 will be :

    A : πa√3 / T
    B : πa√3 / 2T
    C : πa / T
    D : 2a / T


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A

     Solution :
      v = w √(A2 ? x2)
    2π/T * √(a2 - a2/4)
    (πa√3)/T

  •   Question 21

    Which one of the following equations of motion represents simple harmonic motion ?
    Where k, k0, k1 and a are all positive


    A : Acceleration = kx
    B : Acceleration = - k0x + k1x2
    C : Acceleration = - k (x + a)
    D : Acceleration = k(x + a)


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      In SHM, Frestoring ∝ -x

  •   Question 22

    The electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in a medium is represented by : Ex = 0



    A : Moving along -x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 200m
    B : Moving along y direction with frequency 2π*106 Hz and wavelength 200m
    C : Moving along x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 100m
    D : Moving along x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 200m


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D



  •   Question 23

    A wave in a string has an amplitude of 2 cm. The wave travels in the +ve direction of x-axis with a speed of 128 m/s and it is noted that 5 complete waves fit in 4 m length of the string. The equation describing the wave is

    A : y = (0.02)m sin (7.58x - 1005 t)
    B : y = (0.02)m sin (7.85x + 1005 t)
    C : y = (0.02)m sin (15.7x - 2010 t)
    D : y = (0.02)m sin (15.7x + 2010 t)


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A

     Solution :
      5 λ = 4
    λ = 4/5
    k =2 π/ λ
    = 7.85
    wave moves along positive X-direction

  •   Question 24

    Each of the two strings of length 51.6 cm and 49.1 cm are tensioned separately by 20 N force. Mass per unit length of both the strings is same and equal to 1 g/m. When both the strings vibrate simultaneously the number of beats is :

    A : 3
    B : 5
    C : 7
    D : 8


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C



  •   Question 25

    Three capacitors each of capacitance C and of breakdown voltage V are joined in series. The capacitance and breakdown voltage of the combination will be :

    A : 3C, 3V
    B : C/3 , V/3
    C : 3C , V/3
    D : C/3 ,3V


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      In series, Ceq = C/3
    Veq=3V

  •   Question 26

    A wire of resistance 12 ohms per metre is bent to form a complete circle of radius 10 cm. The resistance between its two diametrically opposite points, A and B as shown in the figure, is :



    A : 6 ohm
    B : 0.6πohm
    C : 3 ohm
    D : 6πohm


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      Total resistance of wire = 12 ohm * 2π * 10-1
    = 2.4π
    Resistance of each half = 1.2π and as about diameter both parts are in parallel Req. = 1.2π/2 = 0.6π ohm

  •   Question 27

    A bar magnet having a magnetic movement of 2 * 104 JT-1 is free to rotate in a horizontal plane. A horizontal magnetic field B = 6 * 104 T exists in the space. The work done in taking the magnet slowly from a direction parallel to the field to a direction 60° from the field is :

    A : 2J
    B : 0.6J
    C : 12J
    D : 6J


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      W = MB(cosΘ1 - cosΘ2)
    2 * 104 * 6 * 10-4 (cosΘ - cos60)
    =12 * 1/2 = 6 J

  •   Question 28

    The magnetic force acting on a charged particle of charge -2µc in a magnetic field of 2T acting in y direction, when the particle velocity is (2î + 3ĵ) * 106 ms-1, is :

    A : 8N in z - direction
    B : 8N in z - direction
    C : 4N in z - direction
    D : 8N in y - direction


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      F̃ = q(Ṽ * B̃)
    - 2 * 10-6(2î + 3ĵ) * 106 * 2ĵ]
    (-8N)k̂

  •   Question 29

    A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field 0.04T with its plane perpendicular to the magnetic field. The radius of the loop starts shrinking at 2 mm/s. The induced emf in the loop when the radius is 2 cm is :

    A : 1.6 πµv
    B : 3.2 πµv
    C : 4.8 πµv
    D : 0.8 πµv


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B



  •   Question 30

    The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by V = - x2y - xz3 + 4 The electric field Ẽ at that point is :

    A : Ẽ = î(2xy - z3) + ĵxy2 + k̂3z2x
    B : Ẽ = î(2xy + z3) + ĵx2 + k̂3xz2
    C : Ẽ = î(2xy) + ĵ(x2 + y2 )+ k̂(3xz-y2)
    D : Ẽ = îz + ĵxyz + k̂z2


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B



  •   Question 31

    See the electrical circuit shown in this figure. Which of the following equations is a correct equation for it ?



    A : ξ1 - (i1 + i2)R + i1r1 = 0
    B : ξ1 - (i1 + i2)R - i1r1 = 0
    C : ξ2 - (i1r2) - ξ1 - i1r1 = 0
    D : 2 - (i1 + i2)R + i2r2 = 0


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B



  •   Question 32

    A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 60 ohm shows full scale deflection when a current of 1.0 amp passes through it. It can be converted into an ammeter to read currents upto 5.0 amp by :

    A : Putting in parallel a resistance of 15 ohm
    B : Putting in parallel a resistance of 240 ohm
    C : Putting in series a resistance of 15 ohm
    D : Putting in series a resistance of 240 ohm


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A

     Solution :
      Ig = 1.0A, G = 60q, I = 5.0 A
    S = Ig/ (I -Ig )* G
    S = 1.0/ (5.0 -1.0)*60
    =15 ohm in parallel

  •   Question 33

    Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field, a charged particle moves with constant speed V in a circle of radius R. The time period of rotation of the particle :

    A : Depends on both v and R
    B : Depends on v and not on R
    C : Depends on R and not on v
    D : Is independent of both v and R


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      T = 2πm/2B

  •   Question 34

    Power dissipated in an LCR series circuit connected to an a.c. source of emf ξ is :

    A : B :
    C : D :


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B



  •   Question 35

    Three concentric spherical shells have radii a, b, and c(a < b < c) and have surface charge densities σ , -σ and σ respectively. If VA, VB and VC denote the potentials of the three shells, then, for c = a + b, we have :

    A : VC = VB = VA
    B : VC = VA != VB
    C : VC = VB != VA
    D : VC != VB != VA


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      qA = 4πa2σ,
    qB = - 4πb2σ,
    qC = 4πc2σ,
    c = a + b
    VA = 1/(4πε0) * (qA/a + qB/b + qC/c)
    VA = 2σa / ε0
    Similarly VB = 2σ/ ε0 * (a + a2/b) and VC = 2σa / ε0
    So VC = VA != VB

  •   Question 36

    A student measures the terminal potential difference (V) of a cell (of emf ξ and internal) resistance r) as a function of the current (I) flowing through it. The slope and intercept of the graph between V and I, then respectively equal to :

    A : - ξ and r
    B : ξ and -r
    C : - r and ξ
    D : r and -ξ


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      E = V + Ir
    V = E - Ir
    Comparing with y = mx + c
    Slope = - r, intercept = E

  •   Question 37

    A rectangular, a square, a circular and an elliptical loop, all in the (x - y) plane, are moving out of a uniform magnetic field with a constant velocity,Ṽ = v.î .The magnetic field is directed along the negative z-axis direction. The induced emf, during the passage of these loops, come out of the field region, will not remain constant for :

    A : any of the four loops
    B : The rectangular, circular and elliptical loops
    C : The circular and the elliptical loops
    D : Only the elliptical loop


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      Out of the four structures, when the circular and elliptical loops come out from the field, equal are is not traced in equal interval of time. So any induced in both is not constant.

  •   Question 38

    If a diamagnetic substance is brought near the north or the south pole of a bar magnet, it is :

    A : Attracted by both the poles
    B : Repelled by both the poles
    C : Repelled by the north pole and attracted by the south pole
    D : Attracted by the north pole and repelled by the south pole


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      As diamagnetic substances have negative intensity of magnetisation, they are weekly repelled by the external field.

  •   Question 39

    The number of photoelectrons emitted for light of a frequency v (higher than the threshold frequency v0) is proportional to :

    A : Frequency of light (v)
    B : v - v0
    C : Threshold frequency (v0)
    D : Intensity of light


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      No. of photoelectrons emitted is independent of frequency but depends on intensity.

  •   Question 40

    Monochromatic light of wavelength 667 nm is produced by a helium neon laser. The power emitted is 9 mW. The number of photons arriving per second on the average at a target irradiated by this beam is :

    A : 3 * 1019
    B : 9 * 1017
    C : 3 * 1016
    D : 9 * 1015


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      No. of photons = E/(hc/λ)

  •   Question 41

    The figure shows a plot of photo current versus anode potential for a photo sensitive surface for three different radiations. Which one of the following is a correct statement ?



    A : Curves (b) and (c) represent incident radiations same frequencies having same intensity.
    B : Curves (a) and (b) represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities
    C : Curves (a) and (b) represent incident radiations of same frequencies but of different intensities
    D : Curves (b) and (c) represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      As a and b have same stopping potential and c has greater stopping potential, then vc > va = vb as b and c have same saturation current and a has lesser value.

  •   Question 42

    The number of beta particles emitted by a radioactive substance is twice the number of alpha particles emitted by it. The resulting daughter is an :

    A : Isotope of parent
    B : Isobar of parent
    C : Isomer of parent
    D : Isotone of parent


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A



  •   Question 43

    The ionization energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom in its grounds state is 13.6 eV. The atoms are excited to higher energy levels to emit radiations of 6 wavelengths. Maximum wavelength of emitted radiation corresponds to the transition between :

    A : n = 4 to n = 3 states
    B : n = 3 to n = 2 states
    C : n = 3 to n = 1 states
    D : n = 2 to n = 1 states


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A

     Solution :
      n(n-1)/2 = 6
    n = 4
    For maximum wavelength energy difference between states should be minimum because
    λ = hc/delE

  •   Question 44

    In a Rutherford scattering experiment when a projectile of charge Z1 and mass M1 approaches a target nucleus of charge Z2 and mass M2, the distance of closest approach is r0. The energy of the projectile is :

    A : Directly proportional to mass M1
    B : Directly proportional to M1 * M2
    C : Directly proportional to Z1Z2
    D : Inversely proportional to Z1


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      Energy = 1/4πε0 * Z1Z2/r0

  •   Question 45

    In the nuclear decay given below :
    The particles emitted in the sequence are :




    A : α , β , γ
    B : β , α , γ
    C : γ , β , α
    D : β , γ ,α


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B



  •   Question 46

    The mean free path of electrons in a metal is 4 * 10-8 m. The electric field which can give on an average 2 eV energy to an electron in the metal will be in units of V/m :

    A : 5 * 107
    B : 8 * 107
    C : 5 * 10-11
    D : 8 * 10-11


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A

     Solution :
      qV = 2eV
    1.6 * 10-19V = 2 * 1.6 * 10-19 V
    E = V/d
    E = 2V/4* 10 -8
    = 5 * 107

  •   Question 47

    Sodium has body centred packing. Distance between two nearest atoms is 3.7 Å. The lattice parameter is :

    A : 8.6 Å
    B : 6.8 Å
    C : 4.3 Å
    D : 3.0 Å


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      √3 a/2 = 3.7 Å
    a = 2*3.7/√3 = 4.3 Å

  •   Question 48

    A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with a band gap of 2.5 eV. It can detect a signal of wavelength

    A : 4960 Å
    B : 6000 Å
    C : 4000 nm
    D : 6000 nm


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A

     Solution :
      λmax =hc/eV
    4960 Å

  •   Question 49

    The symbolic representation of four logic gates are given below :



    A : (i), (iii), (iv)
    B : (iii), (iv), (ii)
    C : (iv), (i), (iii)
    D : (iv), (ii), (i)


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D



  •   Question 50

    A transistor is operated in common-emitter configuration at VC = 2V such that a change in the base current from 100µA to 200µA produces a change in the collector current from 5 mA to 10 mA. The current gain is :

    A : 50
    B : 75
    C : 100
    D : 150


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A



  •   Question 51

    10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of water produced in this reaction will be

    A : 1 mol
    B : 2 mol
    C : 3 mol
    D : 4 mol


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D



  •   Question 52

    Oxidation number of P in PO3-4 , of S in SO2-4 and that of Cr in Cr2O2-7 are respectively

    A : 3, 6 and 6
    B : 5, 6 and 6
    C : 3, 6 and 5
    D : 5,3 and 6


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 53

    Maximum number of electrons in a subshell or an atom is determined by the following :

    A : 2n2
    B : 4l + 2
    C : 2l + 2
    D : 4l - 2


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      Maximum no. of electrons in any subshell = 4l + 2

  •   Question 54

    Which of the following is not permissible arrangement of electrons in an atom ?

    A : n = 3, l = 2, m = -3, s = -1/2
    B : n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s =-1/2
    C : n = 5, l = 3, m = 0, s = 1/2
    D : n = 3, l = 2, m = -3, s=-1/2


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      m value - l to + l

  •   Question 55

    From the following bond energies : H - H bond energy : 431.37 kJ mol-1 C = C bond energy : 606.10 kJ mol-1 C - C bond energy : 336.49 kJ mol-1 C - H bond energy : 410.50 kJ mol-1 Enthalpy for the reaction,



    A : 553.0 kJ mol-1
    B : 1523.6 kJ mol-1
    C : -243.6 kJ mol-1
    D : -120.0 kJ mol-1


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      ΔH = dissociation energy of reactant - Bond dissociation of energy of product.
    ΔH = (606.10 + 4 * 410.5 + 431.37)- (6 * 410.50 + 336.49)
    = - 120.0 kJ/mol

  •   Question 56

    The ionization constant of ammonium hydroxide is 1.77 * 10-5 at 298 K. Hydrolysis constant of ammonium chloride

    A : 5.65 * 10-12
    B : 5.65 * 10-10
    C : 6.50 * 10-12
    D : 5.65 * 10-13


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      Kh = Kw / Kb = 5.65 * 1010

  •   Question 57

    Given :




    A : 0.38 V
    B : 0.52 V
    C : 0.90 V
    D : 0.30 V


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B



  •   Question 58

    What is the [OH-] in the final solution prepared by mixing 20.0 mL of 0.050 M HCl with 30.0 mL of 0.10 M Ba(OH)2 ?

    A : 0.12 M
    B : 0.10 M
    C : 0.40 M
    D : 0.0050 M


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      20 mL of 0.50 M HCl = 20 * 0.050 m mol = 1.0 m mol = 1.0 meq. of HCl
    30 mL of 0.10 M Ba(OH)2
    = 30 * 0.1 m mol
    = 3m mol = 3 * 2 meq
    = 6 meq Ba(OH)2
    1 meq of HCl will neutralize 1 meq of Ba(OH)2
    Ba(OH)2 left = 5 meq.
    Total volume = 50 mL
    Ba(OH)2 conc. in final solution = 5/50N = 0.1N = 0.05M
    [OH-] = 2 * 0.05 M = 0.10 M

  •   Question 59

    The energy absorbed by each molecule (A2) of a substance is 4.4 * 10-19 J and bond energy per molecule is 4.0 * 10-19 J. The kinetic energy of the molecule per atom will be :

    A : 4.0 * 10-20 J
    B : 2.0 * 10-20 J
    C : 2.2 * 10-19 J
    D : 4 * 10-19 J


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B



  •   Question 60





    A : 1 * 10-4 mol L-1 s-1
    B : 3 * 10-4 mol L-1 s-1
    C : 4 * 10-4 mol L-1 s-1
    D : 6 * 10-4 mol L-1 s-1


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B



  •   Question 61

    For the reaction A + B -> products, it is observed that :
    (1) On doubling the initial concentration of A only, the rate of reaction is also doubled and
    (2) On doubling the initial concentration of both A and B, there is a change by a factor of 8 in the rate of the reaction. The rate of this reaction is given by :


    A : rate = k[A] [B]
    B : rate = k[A]2[B]
    C : rate = k[A][B]2
    D : rate = k[A]2[B]2


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      Rate = k[A][B]2
    = k[2A][2B]2
    = k * 8[A][B]2

  •   Question 62

    The equivalent conductance of M/32 solution of a weak monobasic acid is 8.0 mho cm2 and at infinite dilution is 400 mho cm2, The dissociation constant of this acid is

    A : 1.25 * 10-4
    B : 1.25 * 10-5
    C : 1.25 * 10-6
    D : 6.25 * 10-4


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      α = AC / A
    =8/400
    Ka = C α2
    =1/32 * 8/400 * 8/400
    1.25 * 10-5

  •   Question 63

    A 0.0020 M aqueous solution of an ionic compound Co(NH3)5(NO2)Cl freezes at - 0.00732°C. Number of moles of ions which 1 mole of ionic compound produces on being dissolved in water will be : (kf = 1.86°C/m)

    A : 1
    B : 2
    C : 3
    D : 4


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      Use ΔTf = ikf . m

  •   Question 64





    A : B :
    C : D :


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B



  •   Question 65

    Lithium metal crystallizes in a body centred cubic crystal. If the length of the side of the unit cell of lithium is 351 pm, the atomic radius of lithium will be :

    A : 300.5 pm
    B : 240.8 pm
    C : 151.8 pm
    D : 75.5 pm


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      for bcc type of unit cell
    (√3a)/4 = r
    Put the values
    =151.98

  •   Question 66





    A : 3.0 * 104
    B : 3.0 * 105
    C : 3.0 * 10-5
    D : 3.0 * 10-4


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A

     Solution :
      Kc = Ka(CH3COOH) * 1/Ka(HCN)
    =1.5 * 10-5 * 1/(4.5 * 10-10)

  •   Question 67

    The values of ΔH and ΔS for the reaction, C(graphite) + CO2(g) -> 2CO(g) are 170 kJ and 170 JK-1 respectively. This reaction will be spontaneous at

    A : 510 K
    B : 710 K
    C : 910 K
    D : 1110 K


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      For a spontaneous reaction
    ΔG = -ve
    Or ar eq. ΔG = 0
    ΔH = TΔS
    T = ΔH /ΔS
    170* 1000/170 = 1000K

  •   Question 68

    Half-life period of a first-order reaction is 1386 seconds. The specific rate constant of the reaction is :

    A : 5.0 * 10-2 s-1
    B : 5.0 * 10-3 s-1
    C : 0.5 * 10-2 s-1
    D : 0.5 * 10-3 s-1


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      K = 0.693/ t1/2= 0.693/1386 =0.5 * 10-3 s-1

  •   Question 69

    In which of the following molecules / ions BF3,NO2- ,NH2- ,H2O the central atom is sp2

    A : BF3 and NO2-
    B : NO2- and NH2-
    C : NH2- and H2O
    D : NO2- and H2O


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A

     Solution :
      Both BF3 and NO2- are sp2 hybridized.

  •   Question 70

    Among the following which is the strongest oxidizing agent ?

    A : Cl2
    B : F2
    C : Br2
    D : I2


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      F2 -> reduction potential very high so strongest oxidizing agent.

  •   Question 71

    According to MO theory which of the following lists ranks the nitrogen species in terms of increasing bond order :

    A : B :
    C : D :


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      N2 = 14e = B.O. = 3
    N2- = 15e = B.O. = 2.5 N22- = 16e = B.O.= 2

  •   Question 72

    In the case of alkali metals, the covalent character decreases in the order :

    A : MI > MBr > MCl > MF
    B : MCl > MI > MBr > MF
    C : MF > MCl > MBr > MI
    D : MF > MCl > MI > MBr


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A

     Solution :
      MI > MBr > MCl > MF Down the group increases covalent character

  •   Question 73

    Which of the following oxides is not expected to react with sodium hydroxide ?

    A : BeO
    B : B2O3
    C : CaO
    D : SiO2


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      Since CaO itself is basic, It will not react with NaOH

  •   Question 74

    Al2O3 is reduced by electrolysis at low potentials and high currents. If 4.0 * 104 amperes of current is passed through molten Al2O3 for 6 hours, what mass of aluminium is produced ? (Assume 100% current efficiency, at. mass of Al = 27 g mol-1)

    A : 1.3 * 104 g
    B : 9.0 * 103 g
    C : 8.1 * 104 g
    D : 2.4 * 105 g


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      Solve W = E/96500 * I * t

  •   Question 75

    The stability of +1 oxidation state increases in the sequence :

    A : Ga < In < Al < Tl
    B : Al < Ga < In < Tl
    C : Tl < In < Ga < Al
    D : In < Tl < Ga < Al


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      +I stability down the group increase due to inert pair effect
    Al < Ga < In < Tl

  •   Question 76

    Copper crystallizes in a face-centred cubic lattice with a unit cell length of 361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom in pm ?

    A : 108
    B : 128
    C : 157
    D : 181


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B



  •   Question 77

    What is the dominant intermolecular force or bond that must be overcome in converting liquid CH3OH to a gas

    A : London dispersion force
    B : Hydrogen bonding
    C : Dipole-dipole interaction
    D : Covalent bonds


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      Inter molecular force in alcohol is mainly H-bonding

  •   Question 78

    Which of the following complex ions is expected to absorb visible light ?
    (At no. Zn = 30, Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Cr = 24)


    A : B :
    C : D :


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D



  •   Question 79

    Out of Tif62- , CoF63- ,Cu2Cl2 and NiCl42- (Z of Ti = 22, Co = 27, Cu = 29, Ni = 28) the colourless species are :

    A : CoF63- & NiCl42-
    B : Tif62- & CoF63-
    C : Cu2Cl2 & NiCl42-
    D : Tif62- & Cu2Cl2


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      In both Tif62- & Cu2Cl2, these no delectrons or no unpaired electrons so, these are colourless.

  •   Question 80

    Which of the following does not show optical isomerism
    (en = Ethylenediamine)


    A : [Co(en)3]3+
    B : [Co(en)2Cl2]+
    C : [Co(NH3)3Cl3]0
    D : [Co(en)Cl2(NH3)2]+


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      As complexes of the type [MA3B3] can show geometrical isomerism knows as facmer isomerism and not optical isomerism. So here [Co(NH3)3Cl3]0 can not show optical isomerism.

  •   Question 81

    Which one of the elements with the following outer orbital configurations may exhibit the largest number of oxidation states ?

    A : 3d24s2
    B : 3d34s2
    C : 3d54s1
    D : 3d54s2


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      7th group -> largest number of oxidation state.

  •   Question 82

    Which of the following molecules acts as a Lewis acid ?

    A : (CH3)3N
    B : (CH3)3B
    C : (CH3)2O
    D : (CH3)3P


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      (CH3)3B ->is electron efficient compound, so behaves as Lewis acid.

  •   Question 83

    Amongst the element with following electronic configurations, which one of them may have the highest ionization energy ?

    A : [Ne]3s23p1
    B : [Ne]3s23p3
    C : [Ne]3s23p2
    D : [Ar]3d104s2 4p3


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      [Ne]3s23p3 ->has highest ionization energy (half-filled)

  •   Question 84

    The straight chain polymer is formed by

    A : hydrolysis of (CH3)2SiCl2 followed by condensation polymerization
    B : hydrolysis of (CH3)3SiCl followed by condensation polymerization
    C : hydrolysis of CH3SiCl3 followed by condensation polymerization
    D : hydrolysis of (CH3)4Si by addition polymerization


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A



  •   Question 85





    A : 1-butene-3-yne
    B : 3-buten-1-yne
    C : 1-butyn-3-ene
    D : but-1-yn-3-ene


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A



  •   Question 86

    Which of the following compounds will exhibit cis-trans (geometrical) isomerism ?

    A : 1-Butanol
    B : 2-Butene
    C : 2-Butanol
    D : 2-Butyne


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B



  •   Question 87

    H2COH.CH2OH on heating with periodic acid gives :

    A : B : 2CO2
    C : 2HCOOH
    D :


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A



  •   Question 88

    Consider the following reaction



    A : CH3CH2-OH
    B : CH2 = CH2
    C : CH3CH2-O-CH2CH3
    D : CH3CH2-O-SO3H


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A



  •   Question 89

    Benzene reacts with CH3Cl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 to form

    A : Xylene
    B : Toluene
    C : Chlorobenzene
    D : Benzylchloride


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B



  •   Question 90

    Nitrobenzene can be prepared from benzene by using a mixture of conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4. In the mixture, nitric acid acts as a/an

    A : catalyst
    B : reducing agent
    C : acid
    D : base


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      HNO3 on nitrating mixture acts as a base.

  •   Question 91

    Which of the following reactions is an example of nucleophilic substitution reaction ?

    A : RX + Mg -> RMgX
    B : RX + KOH -> ROH + KX
    C : 2RX + 2Na -> R-R + 2NaX
    D : RX + H2 -> RH + HX


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      RX + KOH -> ROH + KX
    X- replaced by OH- show nucleophilic substitution reaction

  •   Question 92

    Which one of following is employed as a tranquilizer ?

    A : Chlorpheninamine
    B : Equanil
    C : Naproxen
    D : Tetracycline


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 93

    Structures of some common polymers are given which one is not correctly presented ?

    A : B :
    C : D :


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C



  •   Question 94





    A : B :
    C : D :


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B



  •   Question 95

    Propionic acid with Br2 / P yields a dibromo product, Its structure would be

    A : B : CH2Br-CHBr-COOH
    C : D : CH2Br-CH2-COBr


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A



  •   Question 96

    Trichloroacetaldehyde, CCl3CHO reacts with chlorobenzene in presence of sulphuric acid and produces

    A : B :
    C : D :


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A



  •   Question 97





    A : Benzene
    B : Toluene
    C : Benzaldehyde
    D : Benzoic acid


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D



  •   Question 98





    A : sp, sp2, sp3 and sp2
    B : sp, sp3, sp2 and sp3
    C : sp3, sp2, sp2 and sp
    D : sp, sp2, sp2 and sp3


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B



  •   Question 99

    The segment of DNA which acts as the instrument manual for the synthesis of the protein is :

    A : Nucleoside
    B : Nucleotide
    C : Ribose
    D : Gene


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 100

    Which of the following hormones contains iodine ?

    A : Thyroxine
    B : Insuline
    C : Testosterone
    D : Adrenaline


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A



  •   Question 101

    Which one of the following has haplontic life cycle ?

    A : Wheat
    B : Funaria
    C : Polytrichum
    D : Ustilago


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 102

    T.O.Diener discovered a :

    A : Bacteriophage
    B : Free infection DNA
    C : Free infectious RNA
    D : Infectious protein


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 103

    Mannitol is the stored food in -

    A : Gracillaria
    B : Chara
    C : Porphyra
    D : Fucus


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 104

    Which one of the following is a vascular cryptogram ?

    A : Cedrus
    B : Equisetum
    C : Ginkgo
    D : Marchantia


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 105

    Phylogenetic system of classification is based on:

    A : Floral characters
    B : Evolutionary relationships
    C : Morphological features
    D : Chemical constituents


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 106

    Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic ?

    A : Sponges
    B : Coelentrates (Cnidarians)
    C : Aschelminthes (round worms)
    D : Ctenophores


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 107

    Peripatus is a connecting link between :

    A : Coelenterata and Porifera
    B : Ctenophora and Platyhelminthes
    C : Mollusca and Echinodermata
    D : Annelida and Arthropoda


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 108

    Which one of the following pairs of animals comprises 'Jawless fishes' ?

    A : Guppies and hag fishes
    B : Lampreys and eels
    C : Mackerals and Rohu
    D : Lampreys and hag fishes


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 109

    If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle on its outer surface without damaging its gut, the fluid that comes out is :

    A : Slimy mucus
    B : excretory fluid
    C : Coelomic fluid
    D : haemolymph


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 110

    Plasmodesmata are :

    A : Connection between adjacent cells
    B : Lignified cemented layers between cells
    C : Locomotory structures
    D : Membranes connecting the nucleus with plasmalemma


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 111

    Stroma in the chloroplast of higher plant contains :

    A : Stroma in the chloroplast of higher plant contains :
    B : Light-independent reaction enzymes
    C : Light-dependent reaction enzymes
    D : Ribosomes


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 112

    Synapsis occurs between :

    A : two homolog chromosomes
    B : a male and a female gamete
    C : mRNA and ribosomes
    D : spindle fibres and centromere


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 113

    Middle lamella is composed mainly of :

    A : Phosphoglycerides
    B : Hemicellulose
    C : Muramic acid
    D : Calcium pectate


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 114

    Cytoskeleton is made up of :

    A : Proteinaceous filaments
    B : Calcium carbonate granules
    C : Callose deposits
    D : Cellulose microfibrils


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 115

    The cell junctions called tight, adhering and gap junctions are found in

    A : Neural tissue
    B : Muscular tissue
    C : Connective tissue
    D : Epithelial tissue


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 116

    The kind of tissue that forms the supportive structure in our pinna (external ears) is also found in

    A : tip of the nose
    B : vertebrae
    C : nails
    D : ear ossicles


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 117

    The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian tubes is :

    A : Squamous
    B : Cuboidal
    C : Glandular
    D : Ciliated


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 118





    A : A-Cytokinesis
    B : B-Metaphase
    C : C-Karyokinesis
    D : D-Synthetic phase


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 119

    What is not true for genetic code?

    A : It is unambiguous
    B : A codon in mRNA is read in a noncontiguous fashion
    C : It is nearly universal
    D : It is degenerate


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 120

    Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called :

    A : Capping
    B : Splicing
    C : Tailing
    D : Transformation


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 121

    Semiconservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in :

    A : Salmonella typhimurium
    B : Drosophila melanogaster
    C : Escherichia coli
    D : Streptococcus pneumoniae


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 122

    Whose experiments cracked the DNA and discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is a "triplet" ?

    A : Beadle and Tatum
    B : Nirenberg and Mathaei
    C : Hershey and Chase
    D : Morgan and Sturtevant


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 123

    Point mutation involves :

    A : Deletion
    B : Insertion
    C : Change in single base pair
    D : Duplication


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 124

    In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia) the black-coloured from became dominant over the light-coloured form in England during industrial revolution. This is an example of

    A : Inheritance of darker colour character acquired due to the darker environment
    B : Natural selection whereby the darker forms were selected.
    C : Appearance of the darker coloured individuals due to very poor sunlight
    D : Protective mimicry


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 125

    Sickel cell anemia is :

    A : Characterized by elongated sickle like RBCs with a nucleus
    B : An autosomal linked dominant trait
    C : Caused by substitute of valine by glutamic acid in the beta globin chain of haemoglobin
    D : Caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 126

    Study the pedigree chart given below
    What does it show ?




    A : Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease like haemophilia
    B : Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of metabolism like phenylketonuria
    C : Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait
    D : The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 127

    The most popularly known blood grouping is the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not ABC, because "O" in it refers to having :

    A : No antigens A and B on RBCs
    B : Other antigens besides A and B on RBCs
    C : Overdominance of this type on the genes for A and B types
    D : One antibody only-either anti-A and anti-B on the RBCs


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 128

    Select the incorrect statement from the following :

    A : Baldness is a sex limited trait
    B : Linkage is an exception to the principle of independent assortment in heredity.
    C : Galactosemia is an inborn error of metabolism
    D : Small population size results in random genetic drift in a population


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 129

    Cotyledons and testa respectively are edible parts in

    A : Cashew nut and litchi
    B : Groundnut and pomegranate
    C : Walnut and tamarind
    D : French bean and coconut


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 130

    An example of a seed with endosperm, perisperm and caruncle is

    A : Castor
    B : Cotton
    C : Coffee
    D : Lily


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 131

    Guard cells help in :

    A : Fighting against infection
    B : Protection against grazing
    C : Transpiration
    D : Guttation


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 132

    Manganese is required in

    A : Chlorophyll synthesis
    B : Nucleic acid synthesis
    C : Plant cell wall formation
    D : Photolysis of water during photosynthesis


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 133

    Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in :

    A : Chlorobium
    B : Chromatium
    C : Oscillatoria
    D : Rhodospirillum


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 134

    A fruit developed from hypanthodium inflorescence is called :

    A : Caryopsis
    B : Hesperidium
    C : Sorosis
    D : Syconus


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 135

    The annular and spirally thickened conducting elements generally develop in the protoxylem when the root or stem is

    A : Differentiating
    B : Maturing
    C : Elongating
    D : Widening


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 136





    A : Tobacco
    B : Tulip
    C : Soybean
    D : Sunnhemp


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 137

    An example of axile placentation is

    A : Marigold
    B : Argemone
    C : Dianthus
    D : Lemon


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 138

    In barley stem vascular bundles are

    A : Closed and radial
    B : Open and scattered
    C : Closed and scattered
    D : Open and in a ring


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 139

    Aerobic respiratory pathway is appropriately termed

    A : Anabolic
    B : Catabolic
    C : Parabolic
    D : Amphibolic


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 140

    Palisade parenchyma is absent in leaves of

    A : Gram
    B : Sorghum
    C : Mustard
    D : Soybean


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 141

    Reduction in vascular tissue, mechanical tissue and cuticle is characteristic of :

    A : Hydrophytes
    B : Xerophytes
    C : Mesophytes
    D : Epiphytes


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 142

    Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous root is distinguished from the dicotyledonous stem by :

    A : Position of protoxylem
    B : absence of secondary xylem
    C : Absence of secondary phloem
    D : Presence of cortex


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    .

     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 143

    Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the formation of :

    A : ATP
    B : NADPH
    C : ATP and NADPH
    D : ATP, NADPH and O2


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    .

     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 144

    In a standard ECG which one of the following alphabets is the correct represention of the respective activity of the human heart ?

    A : P-depolarisation of the atria
    B : R-repolarisation of ventricles
    C : S-start of systole
    D : T-end of diastole


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     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 145

    Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous component of the excretory products of

    A : Frog
    B : Man
    C : Earthworm
    D : Cockroach


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    .

     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 146

    Which one of the following pairs of food compounds in humans reaches the stomach totally undigested

    A : Starch and cellulose
    B : Protein and starch
    C : Starch and fat
    D : Fat and cellulose


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    .

     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 147

    Which one of the following is correct pairing of a body part and like kind of muscle tissue that moves it ?

    A : Iris Involuntary smooth muscle
    B : Heart wall Involuntary unstriated muscle
    C : Biceps of upper arm smooth muscle fibres
    D : Abdominal wall smooth muscle


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    .

     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 148

    Compared to blood our lymph has :

    A : More RBCs and less WBCs
    B : No plasma
    C : Plasma without proteins
    D : More WBCs and no RBCs


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    .

     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 149

    What will happen if the stretch receptors of the urinary bladder wall are totally removed ?

    A : There will be no micturition
    B : Urine will continue to collect normally in bladder
    C : Micturition will continue
    D : Urine will not collect in the bladder


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    .

     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 150

    Which part of human brain is concerned with the regulation of body temperature ?

    A : Hypothalamus
    B : Medulla Oblongata
    C : Cerebellum
    D : Cerebrum


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    .

     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 151

    a young infant may be feeding entirely on mother's milk which is white in colour but the stools which the infant passes out is quite yellowish. What is this yellow colour due to ?

    A : Pancreatic juice poured into duodenum
    B : Intestinal juice
    C : Bile pigments passed through bile juice
    D : Undigested milk protein casein


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    .

     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 152

    Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in

    A : Clotting of blood
    B : Defence mechanisms of body
    C : Osmotic balance of body fluids
    D : Oxygen transport in the blood


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    .

     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 153

    Seminal plasma in humans is rich in :

    A : Fructose and certain enzymes but poor calcium
    B : Fructose and calcium but has no enzyme
    C : Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
    D : Glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium


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    .

     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 154

    Given below is a diagrammatic sketch for a portion of human male reproductive system. Select the correct set of the names of the parts labelled A, B, C, D respectively



    A : Ureter Seminal, vesicle, Prostate, Bulbourethral gland
    B : Ureter ,Prostate ,Seminal vesicle ,Bulbouretharal gland
    C : Vas deferens ,Seminal vesicle ,Prostate ,Bulbourethral gland
    D : Vas deferens ,Seminal vesicle ,Bulbourethral gland ,Prostate


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     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 155

    Which one of the following is the correct matching of three items and their grouping category ?
    Items=Groups


    A : Cytosine, uracil, thiamine= Pyrimidines
    B : Malleus, incus, cochlea =Ear ossicles
    C : ilium, ischium pubis =Coxal bones of pelvic girdle
    D : Actin, myosin, rodopsin =Muscle proteins


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    .

     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 156

    Which one of the following statement is true regarding digestion and absorption of food in humans

    A : About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth
    B : Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen
    C : Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like Na+
    D : Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into blood capillaries


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    .

     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 157

    Which one of the following correctly described the location of some body parts in the earthworm Pheretima ?

    A : Two pairs of accessory glands in 1618 segments
    B : Two pairs of testes in 10th and 11th segments
    C : Four pairs of spermathecae in 47 segments
    D : One pair of ovaries attached at intersegmental septum of 14th and 15 th segments.


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     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 158

    Elbow joint is an example of :

    A : Ball and socket joint
    B : Pivot joint
    C : Hinge joint
    D : Gliding joint


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    .

     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 159

    Which one of the following is considered important in the development of seed habit ?

    A : Free-living gametophyte
    B : Dependent sporophyte
    C : Heterospory
    D : Haplontic life cycle


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    .

     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 160

    One of the synthetic auxin is :

    A : IBA
    B : NAA
    C : IAA
    D : GA


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    .

     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 161

    Which one of the following acids is a derivative of carotenoids ?

    A : Abscisic acid
    B : Indole butyric acid
    C : Indole-3-acetic acid
    D : Gibberellic acid


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    .

     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 162

    Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by :

    A : Sucker
    B : Runner
    C : Offset
    D : Rhizome


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    .

     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 163

    Which one of the following plants is monoecios ?

    A : Papaya
    B : Marchantia
    C : Pinus
    D : Cycas


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    .

     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 164

    Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by

    A : Differentiation of mammary glands
    B : Pressure exerted by amniotic fluid
    C : Release of oxytocin from pituitary
    D : Fully developed foetus and placenta


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    .

     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 165

    Which of the following is the correct matching of the events occurring during menstrual cycle ?

    A : Menstruation- Breakdown of myometrium and ovum not fertilized
    B : Ovulation- LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone
    C : Proliferative phase- Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of Grafian follicle
    D : Development of corpus luteum- Secretory phase and increased secretion of progesterone.


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    .

     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 166

    Which one of the following is the most likely root cause why menstruation is not taking place in regularly cycling human female ?

    A : Retention of well-developed corpus luteum
    B : Fertilization of the ovum
    C : Maintenance of the hypertrophical endometrial lining
    D : Maintenance of high concentration of sexhormones in the blood stream


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    .

     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 167

    The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in a mature human testis is :

    A : Spermatogonia-spermatid-spermatocytesperms
    B : Spermatocyte-spermatogonia-spermatidsperms
    C : Spermatogonia-spermatocyte-spermatidsperms
    D : Spermatid-spermatocyte-spermatogoniasperms


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     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 168

    A change in the amount of yolk and its distribution in the egg will effect

    A : Fertilization
    B : Formation of zygote
    C : Pattern of cleavage
    D : Number of blastomeres produced


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    .

     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 169

    When breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive food low in proteins and calories, the infants below the age of one year are likely to suffer from :

    A : Pellagra
    B : Marasmus
    C : Rickets
    D : Kwashiorkor


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     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 170

    Which one of the following types organisms occupy more than one trophic level in a pond ecosystem ?

    A : Frog
    B : Phytoplankton
    C : Fish
    D : Zooplankton


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     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 171

    Which one of the following has maximum genetic diversity in India ?

    A : Tea
    B : Teak
    C : Mango
    D : Wheat


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    .

     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 172

    Montreal protocol aims at :

    A : Control of CO2 emission
    B : Reduction of ozone depleting substances
    C : Biodiversity conservation
    D : Control of water pollution


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    .

     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 173

    Chipko movement was launched for the protection of

    A : Wet lands
    B : Grasslands
    C : Forests
    D : Livestock


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    .

     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 174

    The correct sequence of plants in hydrosere is

    A : Oak - Lantana - Volvox - Hydrilla - Pistia - Scirpus
    B : Oak - Lantana - Scirpus - Pistia - Hydrilla - Volvox
    C : Volvox - Hydrilla - Pistia - Scirpus - Lantana - Oak
    D : Pistia - Volvox - Scirpus - Hydrilla - Oak - Lantana


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    .

     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 175

    A country with a high rate of population growth took measures to reduce it. The figure below shows age-sex pyramids of populations A and B twenty years apart. Select the correct interpretation about them :



    A : "A" is the earlier pyramid and no change has occurred in the growth rate
    B : "A" is more recent shows slight reduction in the growth rate
    C : "B" is earlier pyramid and shows stabilized growth rate
    D : "B" is more recent showing that population is very young


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    .

     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 176

    Step taken by the Government of India to control air pollution include

    A :