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  Question 1





A : B :
C : D :


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     Correct answer is : D



  •   Question 2

    What is [H+] inmol/L of a solution that is 0.20M in CH3COONa and 0.10 M in CH3COOH ? (Ka for CH3COOH = 1.8 * 10-5)

    A : 3.5 * 10 -4
    B : 1.1 * 10 -5
    C : 1.8 * 10 -4
    D : 9.0 * 10 -6


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     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      For acidic buffer solution
    [H+] = Ka[CH3COOH] / CH3COO-]

  •   Question 3

    For an endothermic reaction, energy of activation is Ea and enthalpy of reaction is ΔH (both of these in kJ/mol). Minimum value of Ea will be:

    A : less than ΔH
    B : equal to ΔH
    C : more than ΔH
    D : equal to 0


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     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      In endothermic reactions, energy of reactants is less than that of the products. Potential energy diagram for endothermic reactions is,


  •   Question 4

    The correct order of increasing reactivity of C ? X bond towards nucleophile in the following compounds is:



    A : I < II < IV < III
    B : II < III < I < IV
    C : IV < III < I < II
    D : III < II < I < IV


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     Correct answer is : A

     Solution :
      Alkyl halides are more reactive twoward nucleophilic substitution. Reactivity depends upon the stability of carbocation intermedicate formed.

  •   Question 5

    For the reduction of silver ions with copper metal, the standard cell potential was found to be + 0.46 V at 25°C. The value of standard Gibbs energy ΔG° will be (F = 96500 C mol-?1)

    A : -89.0 kJ
    B : -89.0 J
    C : -44.5 kJ
    D : -98.0 kJ


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     Correct answer is : A

     Solution :
      2Ag+ + Cu → 2Ag + Cu2+
    n=2
    ΔG = -nFEcell
    ΔG = -2 * 96500 * 0.46 Joul
    ΔG = -88.78kJ

  •   Question 6

    In which of the following equilibrium Kc and Kp are not equal?

    A : B :
    C : D :


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     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      Kp = Kc(RT)Δn

  •   Question 7

    Which of the following ions will exhibit colour in aqueous solutions ?

    A : La3+ (Z = 57)
    B : Ti3+ (Z = 22)
    C : Lu3+ (Z = 71)
    D : Sc3+ (Z = 21)


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     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      Ti3+ (Z = 22) Ions which have unpaired electrons exhibit colour in solution. Ti3+ has an outer electronic configuration of 4s0 3d1, i.e., 1 unpaired electron. Thus its solution will be coloured. Sc3+ → d0 In case of La3+, 4f0 configuration is present and in Lu3+, 4?f14 is present. So, there is no possibility of ?f-f? transition, hence these ions do not appear coloured.

  •   Question 8

    Aniline in a set of the following reactions yielded a coloured product 'Y'.

    A : B :
    C : D :


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    .

     Correct answer is : A



  •   Question 9

    Acetamide is treated with the following reagents separately.Which one of these would yieldmethyl amine ?

    A : NaOH-Br2
    B : Sodalime
    C : Hot conc. H2SO4
    D : PCl5


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     Correct answer is : A

     Solution :
      The reagent which can convert -CONH2 group into -NH2 group is used for this reaction. Among the given reagents only NaOH/Br2 converts -CONH3 group to -NH2 group, thus it is used for converting acetamide to methyl amine. This reaction is called Hoffmann bromamide reaction.

  •   Question 10

    An aqueous solution is 1.00 molal in KI. Which change will cause the vapour pressure of the solution to increase?

    A : Addition of NaCl
    B : Addition of Na2SO4
    C : Addition of 1.00 molal KI
    D : Addition of water


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     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      Vapour pressure depends upon the surface area of the solution. Larger the surface area, higher is the vapour pressure. Addition of solute decreases the vapour pressure as some dites of the surface are occupied by solute particles, resulting in decreased surface area. However, addition of solvent(dilution),increases the surface area of the liquid surface, thus results in increased vapour pressure. Hence, addition of water to the aqueous solution of (1 molal) KI, results in increased vapour p

  •   Question 11

    A solution of sucrose (molar mass = 342 gmol?-1) has been prepared by dissolving 68.5 g of sucrose in 1000 g of water. The freezing point of the solution obtained will be: (Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol?-1)

    A : -0.372°C
    B : -0.520°C
    C : + 0.372°C
    D : -0.570°C


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     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      Depression in freezing point
    ΔTf = kf * m
    where m = molality = (WB * 1000)/MBWA

  •   Question 12

    Which of the following alkaline earth metal sulphates has hydration enthalpy higher than the lattice enthalpy?

    A : CaSO4
    B : BeSO4
    C : BaSO4
    D : SrSO4


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     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      Hydration energy varies inversely with size and in sulphates of alkaline earth metals lattice energy remains almost constant. The order of size of alkaline earth metals is
    Be2+ < Ca2+ < Sr2+ < Ba2+
    Thus, the order of hydration energy is Be2+ > Ca2+ > Sr2+ > Ba2+ Hence, BeSO2 has the hydration enthalpy higher than the lattice enthalpy.

  •   Question 13

    Which of the following ions has electronic configuration [Ar]3d6 ?

    A : Ni3+
    B : Mn3+
    C : Fe3+
    D : Co3+


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     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      Write the electronic configurations of given ions and find the correct answer.

  •   Question 14

    An increase in equivalent conductance of a strong electrolyte with dilution is mainly due to:

    A : increase in ionic mobility of ions.
    B : 100% ionisation of electrolyte at normal dilution.
    C : increase in both i.e. number of ions and ionic mobility of ions.
    D : increase in number of ions.


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     Correct answer is : A

     Solution :
      λeq = k * V
    =k*1000/normality
    On dilution, the number of current carrying particles per cm3 decreases but the volume of solution increases. Consequently, the ionic mobility increases, which in turn increases the equivalent conductance of strong electrolyte.

  •   Question 15

    Crystal filed stabilization energy for high spin d4 octahedral complex is

    A : -1.8 δ0
    B : -1.6 δ0 + P
    C : -1.2 δ0
    D : -0.6 δ0


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     Correct answer is : D



  •   Question 16

    Oxidation states of P in H4P2O5, H4P2O6, H4P2O7 are respectively

    A : +3, +5, +4
    B : +5, +3, +4
    C : +5, +4, +3
    D : +3, +4, +5


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     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      Oxidation state of H is + 1 and that of O is -2.
    Let the oxidation state of P in the given compounds is x.
    In H4P2O5, (+1) * 4 + 2 * x + (? 2) * 5 = 0
    4 + 2x - 10 = 0
    2x = 6
    x = + 3
    In H4P2O6, (+1) * 4 + 2 * x + (? 2) * 6 = 0
    4 + 2x - 12 = 0


  •   Question 17

    Which of the following statements about primary amines is 'False'?

    A : Alkyl amines are stronger bases than aryl amines
    B : Alkyl amines react with nitrous acid to produce alcohols
    C : Aryl amines react with nitrous acid to produce phenols
    D : Alkyl amines are stronger bases than ammonia


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     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 18

    The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following species are :

    A : Cl2O < ClO2 < ClO2- ?
    B : ClO2 < Cl2O < ClO2- ?
    C : Cl2O < ClO2- < ClO2
    D : ClO2- < Cl2O < ClO2


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     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      As the number of lone pairs of electrons increases, bond angle decreases due to repulsion between 1p - 1p. Moreover, as the electronegativity of central atom decreases, bond angle decreases. Hence, the order of bond angle is ClO2- < Cl2O < ClO2
    (Cl is less electronegative as compared to O.)

  •   Question 19

    Among the given compounds, the most susceptible to nucleophilic attack at the carbonyl group is:

    A : CH3COOCH3
    B : CH3CONH2
    C : CH3COOCOCH3
    D : CH3COCl


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     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      Lesser the electron density of acyl carbon atom, more will be the susceptiblity of nucleophile to attack it.
    The Cl atom has strong -I effect because of the weak p-bond between the small sized C-atom and large sized Cl atom. Thus in CH3COCl, acyl carbon has least electron density and hence, more suceptible for nucleophilic attack.

  •   Question 20

    25.3 g of sodium carbonate, Na2CO3 is dissolved in enough water to make 250 mL of solution. If sodium carbonate dissociates completely, molar concentration of sodium ion, Na+ and carbonate ions, CO32- are respectively (Molar mass of Na2CO3 = 106 gmol?-1)

    A : 0.955 M and 1.910 M
    B : 1.910 M and 0.955 M
    C : 1.90 M and 1.910 M
    D : 0.477 M and 0.477 M


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     Correct answer is : B



  •   Question 21

    Consider the following relations for emf of an electrochemical cell :
    (i) EMF of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode)-(Reduction potential of cathode)
    (ii) EMF of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) + (Reduction potential of cathode)
    (iii) EMF of cell = (Reduction potential of anode) + (Reduction potential of cathode)
    (iv) EMF of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode)-(Oxidation potential of cathode) Which of the above relations are correct


    A : iii and i
    B : i and ii
    C : iii and iv
    D : ii and iv


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     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      EMF of a cell = Reduction potential of cathode-Reduction potential of anode = Reduction potential of cathode + Oxidation potential of anode = Oxidation potential of anode-Oxidation potential of cathode.

  •   Question 22

    In which of the following molecules, the central atom does not have sp3 hybridization?

    A : CH4
    B : SF4
    C : BF4-
    D : NH4+


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     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      For SF4, no. of e-? pairs = 4 + 1/2[6 4]= 5 (sp3d hybridisation)

  •   Question 23

    For vaporization of water at 1 atmospheric pressure, the values of ΔH and ΔS are 40.63 kJ mol?-1 and 108.8 JK-11 mol?-1, respectively. The temperature when Gibb's energy change (ΔG) for this transformation will be zero, is :

    A : 273.4
    B : 393.4K
    C : 373.4K
    D : 293.4K


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     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      ΔG = ΔH - TΔS
    when T= ΔH/ΔS = 40.63 *103/108.8 = 373.43

  •   Question 24

    Match List I (substances) with List II (processes) employed in the manufacture of the substances and select the correct option :
    List 1 SubstancesList II Process
    Sulphuric acidHaber's process
    SteelBessemer's process
    Sodium hydroxideLeblanc process
    AmmoniaContact process


    A : a - (i), b- (iv), c- (ii), d- (iii)
    B : a- (i), b- (ii), c- (iii), d- (iv)
    C : a - (iv), b - (iii), c - (ii), d - (i)
    D : a- (iv), b - (ii), c - (iii), d - (i)


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     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 25

    When glycerol is treated with excess of HI, it produces :

    A : 2-iodopropane
    B : allyl iodide
    C : propene
    D : glycerol triiodide


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     Correct answer is : A



  •   Question 26

    Some statements about heavywater are given below :
    (i) Heavy water is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors.
    (ii) Heavywater is more associated than ordinary water.
    (iii) Heavywater ismore effective solvent than ordinarywater.
    Which of the above statements are correct?


    A : i and ii
    B : i,ii and iii
    C : ii and iii
    D : i and iii


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     Correct answer is : A

     Solution :
      Heavywater is used for slowing down the speed of neutrons in nuclear reactors, hence used asmoderators. Boiling point of heavy water is greater (374.42 K) than that of ordinary water (373 K), hence heaver water is more associated. Dielectric constant of ordinary water is greater than that of heavy water, hence ordinary water is a better solvent.

  •   Question 27

    The compound A on heating gives a colourless gas and a residue that is dissolved in water to obtain B. Excess of CO2 is bubbled through aqueous solution of B, C is formed which is recovered in the solid form. Solid C on gentle heating gives back A. The compound A is :

    A : CaCO3
    B : Na2CO3
    C : K2CO3
    D : CaSO4.2H2O


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     Correct answer is : A



  •   Question 28

    Match the compounds given in List I with their characteristic reactions given in List II. Select the correct option.



    A : a-(ii), b - (i), c - (iv), d- (iii)
    B : a - (iii), b - (ii), c - (i), d - (iv)
    C : a - (ii), b - (iii), c - (i), d - (iv)
    D : a - (iv), b - (ii), c - (iii), d - (i)


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     Correct answer is : C



  •   Question 29

    Which one of the following compounds will be most readily dehydrated?

    A : B :
    C : D :


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     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      The ease of dehydration of the given compounds can be explained on the basis of the stability of the carbocation formed. In case of options (1), (2) and (4), a secondary carbocation is formed but the presence of an electron withdrawing > C = O group adjacent to the positively charged carbon, intensifies the charge & hence destabilies the species.
    However, in case of option (c), a secondary carbocation is formed, but the electron withdrawing > C = O group is present away, as a farther

  •   Question 30

    The rate of reaction
    2NO + Cl2 → 2NOCl is given by the rate equation rate = k[NO]2[Cl]2.The value the rate of constant can be increased by :


    A : increasing the temperature
    B : increasing the concentration of NO
    C : increasing the concentration of the Cl2
    D : doing all of above


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     Correct answer is : A

     Solution :
      Rate constant is independent of the initial concentration of the reactants. It has a constant value at fixed temperature. Hence the value of rate constant can be increased by increasing the temperature.

  •   Question 31

    Which of the following complexes is not expected to exhibit isomerism?

    A : [Ni(NH3)4(H2O)2]2+
    B : [Pt(NH3))2Cl2]
    C : [Ni(NH3))2Cl2]
    D : [Ni(en3)]2+


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     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      3 has tetrahedral geometry and thus, does not exhibit isomerism due to presence of symmetry elements.

  •   Question 32

    Which of the following conformers for ethylene glycol is most stable?

    A : B :
    C : D :


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     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      The conformation (4) is most stable because of intermolecular H - bonding.

  •   Question 33

    The IUPAC name of the compound



    A : Pent-4-yn-2-ene
    B : Pent-3-en-1-yne
    C : Pent-2-en-4-yne
    D : Pent-1-yn-3-ene


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     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 34

    Which of the following oxidation states is the most common among the lanthanoids?

    A : 4
    B : 2
    C : 5
    D : 3


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     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      The common stable oxidation state of all the lanthanoids is + 3.

  •   Question 35

    How many bridging oxygen atoms are present in P4O10?

    A : 6
    B : 4
    C : 2
    D : 5


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     Correct answer is : A



  •   Question 36

    Some of the properties of the two species, NO3- and H3O+ are described below. Which one of them is correct?

    A : Dissimilar in hybridization for the central atom with different structures
    B : Isostructural with same hybridization for the central atom
    C : Isostructural with different hybridization for the central atom
    D : Similar in hybridiation for the central atom with different structures


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     Correct answer is : A

     Solution :
      In NO3- = H = 1/2[5+0-0+1]=3
    In H3O+
    H = 1/2[6+3-1+0]=4

  •   Question 37

    The following two reactions are known



    A : +10.3kJ
    B : -43.3kJ
    C : -10.3kJ
    D : +6.2kJ


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     Correct answer is : D



  •   Question 38

    Following compounds are given



    A : (i), (iii) and (iv)
    B : Only (ii)
    C : (i), (ii) and (iii)
    D : (i) and (ii)


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     Correct answer is : C



  •   Question 39

    Fructose reduces Tollen's reagent due to :

    A : Asymmetric carbons
    B : Primary alcoholic groups
    C : Secondary alcoholic group
    D : Enolisation of fructose followed by conversion to aldehyde by base


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     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      In aqueous solution, fructose is enolised and then converted into aldehyde in basic medium. All aldehydes generally reduce Tollen's reagent, thus fructose also reduces Tollen's reagent

  •   Question 40

    In the following reaction



    A : C6H5CH2OCH2C6H5
    B : C6H5CH2OH
    C : C6H5CH3
    D : C6H5CH2CH2C6H5


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     Correct answer is : C



  •   Question 41

    Which one of the following is manoecious

    A : Date palm
    B : Marchantia
    C : Cyas
    D : Pinus


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     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 42

    Jaundice is disorder of

    A : Circulatory system
    B : Excretory system
    C : Skin and eyes
    D : Digestive system


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     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 43

    Given below are four statements (A-D) each with one or two blanks. Select the option which correctly fills up the blanks in two.

    Statements : (A) Wings of butterfly and birds look alike and are the results of ______(i)______, evolution
    (B) Miller showed that CH4, H2, NH3 and _____(i)_____, when exposed to electric discharge in a flask resulted in formation of _______(ii)______
    (C) Vermiform appendix is a _______(i)_____ organ and an _______(ii)______ evidence of evolution.
    (D) According to Darwin evolution took place due to _______(i)______ and ______(ii)_______ of the fittest


    A : (C)(i) vestigial,(ii) anatomical,
    (D) (i) mutations,(ii) multiplication

    B : (D)(i) small variation, (ii) survival,
    (A)(i) convergent

    C : (A)(i) convergent,
    (B)(i)oxygen, (ii)nucleosides

    D : (B)(i) water vapour, (ii) amino acids,
    (C) ? (i) rudimentary (ii) anatomical



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     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 44

    In eukaryotic cell transcription, RNA splicaing and RNA capping take place inside the

    A : ER
    B : Ribosomes
    C : Nucleus
    D : Dictyosomes


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     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 45

    Select the correct matching of a hormone, its source and function


    A :
    B :
    C :
    D :
    HormoneSourceFunction
    ProlactinPosterior pituitaryRegulates growth of mammary glands and milk formation in females
    VasopressionPosterior pituitaryIncreases loss of water through urine
    NorepinephrineAdrenal medullaIncreases heart beat, rate of respiration and alertness
    GlucagonBeta-cells of lslets of langerhansStimulates glycogenolysis



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     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 46

    A cross in which an organism showing a dominant phenotype crosed with the recessive parent in order to know its genotype is called

    A : Dihybrid cross
    B : Monohybrid cross
    C : Back cross
    D : Test cross


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     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 47

    A person suffering from a disease caused by Plasmodium, experinces recurring chill and fever at the time when

    A : The microgametocytes and megagametocytes are being destoryed by the WBCs.
    B : The sporozoites released from RBCs are being rapidly killed and broken down inside spleen.
    C : The trophyzoitges reach maximum growth and give out certain toxins
    D : The parasite after its rapid multiplicaiton inside RBCs ruptures them, releasing the stage to enter fresh RBCs.


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     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 48

    Select the correct combination of the statements (a-d) regarding the characteristics of certain organisms.
    (a) Methanogens are archaebacteria which producemethane inmarshy areas
    (b) Notoc is a filamentous blue-green alga which fixes atmospheric nitrogen
    (c) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesize cellulose form glucose
    (d) Mycoplasma lack a cell wall and can survive wihout oxygen. The correct statemetns are


    A : (a), (b), (d)
    B : (b), (c)
    C : (a), (b), (c)
    D : (b), (c), (d)


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     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 49

    Read the following four statements,A, B, C and D and select the right option having both correct statements.
    (A) Z scheme of light reaction takes place in presence of PSI only
    (B) Only PSI is functional in cyclic photophosphorylaiton.
    (C) Cyclic photophosphorylation results into synthesis of ATP and NADPH2
    (D) Stroma lamellae lack PSII as well as NADP.


    A : C and D
    B : B and D
    C : A and B
    D : B and C


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     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 50

    Which one of the following techniques is safest for the detection of cancers

    A : Histopathological studies
    B : Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
    C : Radiography (X-ray)
    D : Computed tomography (CT)


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     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 51

    Select the answer with correct matching of the structure, its location and function


    A :
    B :
    C :
    D :
    StructureLocationFunction
    Blind spotNear the place where optic nerve leaves the eyeRods and cones are present but inactive here
    Eustachian tubeAnterior part of internal earEqualizes air pressure on either sides of tympanic membrane
    CerebellumMid brainControls respiration and ganieie
    HypothalamusFore brainControls Body temperature, urge for eating and drinking



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     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 52

    Identify the components labelled A, B, C and D in the diagram below from the list (i) to (viii) given with.
    Components :
    (i) Cristae ofmitochondria
    (ii) Inner membrane of mitochondria
    (iii) Cytoplasm
    (iv) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    (v) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
    (vi)Mitochondrial matrix
    (vii) Cell vacuole
    (viii) Nucleus
    The correct components A,B,C,D respectively are




    A : (v) (i) (iii) (ii)
    B : (v) (iv) (viii) (iii)
    C : (i) (iv) (viii) (vi)
    D : (vi) (v) (iv) (vii)


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     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 53

    Signals from fully developed foetus and placenta ultimately lead to parturition which requires the release of

    A : Ralaxin from placenta
    B : Estrogen from placenta
    C : Oxytocin from maternal pituitary
    D : Oxytocin from foetal pituitary


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     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 54

    Consider the following four statements A, B, C and D select the right option for two correct statements.
    Statements :




    A : C and D
    B : A and C
    C : A and B
    D : B and C


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     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 55

    The most apparent change during the evloutionary history of Homo sapiens is traced in

    A : Remarkable increase in the brains size
    B : Companion cells
    C : Transfusion cells
    D : Tracheids


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     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 56

    Crocodile and Penguin are similar toWhale and Dogfish in which one of the following features

    A : Have gill slits at some stage
    B : Possess a solid single stranded central nerovous system
    C : Lay eggs and guard them till they hatch
    D : Possess bony skeleton


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     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 57

    The Indian Rhinoceros is a natural inhabitant of which one of the Indian states

    A : Assam
    B : Uttarakhand
    C : Uttar Pradesh
    D : Himachal Pradesh


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     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 58

    In Antirrhinum two plants with pink flowers were hybridized. The F1 plants produced red, pink and white flowers in the proportion of 1 red, 2 pink and 1 white.What could be the genotype of the two plants used for hybridization? Red flower colour is determined by RR, and white by rr genes

    A : rr
    B : rrr
    C : RR
    D : Rr


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     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 59

    Fastest distribution of some injectible material / medicine and with no risk of any kind can be achieved by injecting it into the

    A : Lymph vessels
    B : Muscles
    C : Arteries
    D : Veins


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     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 60

    Which one of the following is most appropriately defined

    A : Parasite is an organism which always lives inside the body of other organism and may kill it.
    B : Host is an organism which provides food to another organism
    C : Amensalism is a relationship in which one species is benefited where as the other is unaffected.
    D : Predator is an organism that catches and kills other organism for for food.


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     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 61

    About which day in a normal human menstrual cycle does rapid secretion of LH (Popularly called LH-surge) normally occurs?



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    .

     Correct answer is : 1


  •   Question 62

    About which day in a normal human menstrual cycle does rapid secretion of LH (Popularly called LH-surge) normally occurs?



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 1


  •   Question 63

    The cells lining the blood vessels belong to the category of:



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      Inner most lining of Blood vessels in endothelium and is a type of squamous epithelia.

  •   Question 64

    The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm disease in humans belongs to the same Kingdom of organisms as that of:



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 3

     Solution :
      Micorosporum is a member of Deuteromycetes of fungi & Rizopus is also fungi and member of Zygomycetes.

  •   Question 65

    The figure below shows the structure of a mitochondrion with its four parts labelled (A), (B), (C) and (D). Select the part correctly matched with its function.





  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 2


  •   Question 66

    Read the following statement having two blanks (A and B):
    ?A drug used for --------(A)-------- patients is obtained from a species of the organism --------(B)--------.? The one correct option for the two blanks is:




  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      CyclosporinA is immunosuppressive drug obtained from Trichoderma and use in organ transplantation

  •   Question 67

    Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing transgenic plants resistant to:



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      It occur through RNA i

  •   Question 68

    At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by their:



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 3


  •   Question 69

    Consider the following statements (A-D) about organic farming:
    (A) Utilizes genetically modified crops like Bt cotton
    (B) Uses only naturally produced inputs like compost
    (C) Does not use pesticides and urea
    (D) Produces vegetables rich in vitamins and minerals
    Which of the above statements are correct?




  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 3


  •   Question 70

    One of the constituents of the pancreatic juice while poured into the duodenum in humans, is:



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      Because it is inactive form and we know that all enzymes of pancrease secreted in this form

  •   Question 71

    Frogs differ from humans in possessing:



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 3

     Solution :
      Human possesses enucleated RBC inmature state

  •   Question 72

    Which one of the following option gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative organism andmode mode of infection.




  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 2


  •   Question 73

    Test cross in plants or in Drosophila involves crossing



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 3

     Solution :
      It is a defination of test cross

  •   Question 74

    Some vascular bundles are described as open because these



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      Open means presence of cambium during sec. growth. Vascular cambium divides to form secondary xylem towards Inner side while sec. Phloem towards outside

  •   Question 75

    In mitochondria, protons accumulate in the



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 3


  •   Question 76

    The breakdown of detritus into smaller particles by earthworm is a process called



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 2


  •   Question 77

    Whorled, simple leaves with reticulate venation are present in



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 4

     Solution :
      Whorled phyllotaxy is feature of Nerium and Alstonia. In Alstonia five leaves present in a whorl while in Nerium three leaves present in a whorl

  •   Question 78

    Sweet potato is homolgous to



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 4

     Solution :
      Sweet potato and turnip both are roots

  •   Question 79

    The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic material came from the studies on a



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 4


  •   Question 80

    Consider the following four statements whether they are correct of wrong
    (A) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses
    (B) Salvinia is heterosporous
    (C) The life- cycle in all seed-bearing plants is diplontic
    (D) In pinus male and female cones are borne on different trees




  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      (A) Sporophyte is more developed in mosses rather than liver wort.
    (B) Pinus is Monoecious in which male & female cones are borne on different branch.

  •   Question 81

    Consider the following four statements (A-D) related to the common frog Rana tigrina, and select the correct option stating which ones are true (T) and which ones are false (F) Statements :
    (A) On dry land it would die due to lack of O2 its mouth is forcibly kept closed for a few days
    (B) It has four- chambered heart
    (C) On day land it turns uricotelic from ureotelic
    (4) Its life-history is carried out in pond water




  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      (A) Dry skin cause ceased cutaneous respiration
    (B) Three chembered heart.
    (C) Frog never be uricotalic
    (D) External fertilization and in water

  •   Question 82

    In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 2


  •   Question 83

    Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is human, Which one of its components is correctly interpreted below





  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 3

     Solution :
      Peak P-causes diastolic phase in ventricle while R-Peak causes systole in ventricle means diastolic and systolic phases represented by P & R and same Diastolic and systolic B.P.

  •   Question 84

    Which one of the following structures in Pheretima is correctly matched with its function



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      Clitellum - secretes cocoon during breading season of earthworm. Gizzard -grinding of food particles. setae help in locomotion. Typhlosole increases the absorption area in intestine

  •   Question 85

    Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to represent a significant step toward evolution of seed habit because:



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 4


  •   Question 86

    Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from body tissues into the blood is present as



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      70% to 75% CO2 is transported as NaHCO3 by plasma and KHCO3 by RBCs

  •   Question 87

    In angiosperms, Functional megaspore develops into



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      During megagametogenesis functional megaspore (mostly chalazal) gives rise to embryo sac

  •   Question 88

    Consider the following statements (A)-(D) each with one or two blanks.
    (A) Bears go into __(1)__ during winter to __(2)__ cold weather
    (B) A conical age pyramid with a broad base represents __(3)__ human population
    (C) A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an example of __(4)___
    (D) An area with high levels of species richness is known as __(5)___

    Which one of the following options give the correct fill ups the respective blank numbers from (1) to (5) in the statements




  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 4


  •   Question 89

    What is common between vegetative reproduction and Apomixis



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 4

     Solution :
      The progeny are genetically similar to parent and called clone

  •   Question 90

    Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 4

     Solution :
      The progeny are genetically similar to parent and called clone

  •   Question 91

    Which one of the following is not an essential mineral element for plants while the remaining three are



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 3

     Solution :
      Cadmium is not essential element for plants

  •   Question 92

    Biodiversity of a geographical region represents



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 2


  •   Question 93

    Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system ?



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 2

     Solution :
      Except peroxisome the remaining three and ER are the parts of Endomembrane system.

  •   Question 94

    Which one of the following correctly represents the normal adult human dental formula ?



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 3


  •   Question 95

    Charge q is uniformly spread on a thin ring of radius R. The ring rotates about its axis with a uniform frequency f Hz. The magnitude of magnetic induction at the centre of the ring is



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 1

     Solution :
      B = µI/2R
    I = q/T=qf
    B = µ0qf /2R

  •   Question 96

    The figure shows four animals (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the correct answer with respect to a common characteristics of two of these animals.






  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 4

     Solution :
      From Annaelida to chordata all are Eucoelomate C-Mollusca (Octopus), D-Arthropoda (Scorpion)

  •   Question 97

    In history of biology, human genome project led to the development of :



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 3


  •   Question 98

    Which one of the following conditions of the zygotic cell would lead to the birth of a normal human female child ?



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 1


  •   Question 99

    Which one of the following is essential for photolysis of water ?



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 1


  •   Question 100

    Which one of the following techniques made it possible to genetically engineer living organism ?



  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : 1


  •   Question 101

    A 200 W sodium street lamp emits yellow light of wavelength 0.6 µm. Assuming it to be 25% efficient in converting electrical energy to light, the number of photons of yellow light it emits per second is

    A : 62 * 1020
    B : 3 * 1019
    C : 1.5 * 1020
    D : 6 * 1018


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      Efficient power P = N/t * hc/λ = 200*0.25
    On Solving N/t = 50* λ/hc

  •   Question 102

    Electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from third excited state to second excited state and then from second excited to the first excited state. The ratio of the wavelengths λ1 : λ2 emitted in the two cases is

    A : 27/5
    B : 20/7
    C : 7/5
    D : 27/20


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      Wavelength observed from transition of ni to nf is
    1/[1/nf2 - 1/ni2]
    For λ1 , ni = 4, nf = 3 For λ2 ,ni = 3, nf = 2

  •   Question 103

    An electron of a stationary hydrogen atom passes from the fifth energy level to the ground level. The velocity that the atom acquired as a result of photon emission will be

    A : 25m/24hR
    B : 24m/24hR
    C : 24m/25hR
    D : 25m/24hR


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      v = h/λm

  •   Question 104

    If the nuclear radius of 27Al is 3.6 Fermi, the approximate nuclear radius of 64Cu in Fermi is

    A : 4.8
    B : 3.6
    C : 2.4
    D : 1.2


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A

     Solution :
      Nuclear radius R ∝ A1/3 where A is mass number

  •   Question 105

    A mixture consists of two radioactive materials A1 and A2 with half lives of 20s and 10s respectively. Initially the mixture has 40g of A1 and 160 g of A2. The amount of the two in the mixture will become equal after :

    A : 20s
    B : 40s
    C : 60s
    D : 80s


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B



  •   Question 106

    Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as shown in the circuit. The current supplied by the battery is



    A : 0.25 A
    B : 0.5 A
    C : 0. 75 A
    D : Zero


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      Current will flow only in diode D1 therefore current supplied by the battery is 0.5 A Since D1 is forward bias and D2 is reverse bias.

  •   Question 107

    The figure shown a logic circuit with two inputs A and B and the output C. The voltage wave farms across A, B and C are given. The logic circuit gate is



    A : AND gate
    B : NAND gate
    C : OR gate
    D : NOR gate


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      The Logic of the OR gate is if any of the input is one then output is one

  •   Question 108

    In a CE transistor amplifier, the audio singal voltage across the collector resistance of 2kΩ is 2V. If the v base resistance is 1 kΩ and the current amplification of the transistor is 100, the input signal voltage is

    A : 1 mV
    B : 10 mV
    C : 0.1 V
    D : 1.0 V


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      Voltage amplification Vo/Vi = current gain * Ro/Ri

  •   Question 109

    C and Si both have same lattice structure, having 4 bonding electrons in each. However, C is insulator where as Si is intrinsic semiconductor. This is because

    A : The four bonding electrons in the case of C lie in the second orbit, whereas in the case of Si they lie in the third.
    B : The four bonding electrons in the case of C lie in the third orbit, whereas for Si they lie in the fourth orbit.
    C : In case of C the valence band is not completely filled at absolute zero temperature
    D : In case of C the conduction bans is partly filled even at absolute zero temperature


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A

     Solution :
      The four bonding electrons in the case of C lie in the second orbit, whereas in the case of Si they lie in the third.

  •   Question 110

    Transfer characteristics [output voltage (V0) vs input voltage (Vi)] for a base biased transistor in CE configuration is as show in the figure. For using transistor as a switch, it is used



    A : in region II
    B : in region I
    C : in region III
    D : both in region (I) and (III)


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      For using transistor as a switch, it is used in cut off state and saturation state only.

  •   Question 111

    In a zero-order reaction for every 10° rise of temperature, the rate is doubled. If the temperature is increased from 10°C to 100°C, the rate of the reaction will become:

    A : 64 times
    B : 128 times
    C : 256 times
    D : 512 times


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      29 = 512

  •   Question 112

    Which one of the following pairs is isostructural (i.e. having the same shape and hybridization) ?

    A : [NF3 and BF3]
    B : [BF4- and NH4+]
    C : [BCl3 and BrCl3]
    D : [NH3 and NO3-]


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B



  •   Question 113

    In which of the following reactions, standard reaction entropy change (ΔS°) is positive and standard gibb's energy change (ΔG°) decreases sharply with increasing temperature ?

    A : Mg(s) + 1/2O2(g) → MgO(s)
    B : 1/2C graphite + 1/2O2(g) → 1/2 CO2
    C : C graphite + 1/2O2(g) → CO(g)
    D : CO(g) + 1/2O2(g) → CO2


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      ΔS = +ve
    ΔG = ΔH - TΔS, ΔH=-ve
    ΔG = +ve

  •   Question 114

    In a reaction, A + B → Product , rate is doubled when the concentration of B is doubled, and rate increases by a factor of 8 when the concentrations of both the reactants (A and B) are doubled, rate law for the reaction can be written as

    A : Rate = k[A][B]
    B : Rate = k[A]2[B]
    C : Rate = k[A][B]2
    D : Rate = k[A]2[B]2


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      r = K[A]m[B]n
    wrt B r


  •   Question 115

    Limiting molar conductivity of NH4OH (i.e.Δ°m (NH4OH)) is equal to

    A : Δ°m(NH4OH) + Δ°m(NH4Cl) - Δ°m(HCl)
    B : Δ°m(NH4Cl)+ Δ°m(NaOH)- Δ°m(NaCl)
    C : Δ°m(NH4Cl)+ Δ°m(NaCl) - Δ°m(NaOH)
    D : Δ°m (NaOH) + Δ°m (NaCl) - Δ°m (NH4Cl)


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      NH4Cl + NaOH → NaCl + NH4OH

  •   Question 116

    Which of the following species contains three bond pairs and one lone pair around the central atoms ?

    A : NH-2
    B : PCl3
    C : H2O
    D : BF3


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B



  •   Question 117

    Buffer solutions have constant acidity and alkalinity because

    A : They have large excess of H+ or OH- ions
    B : They have fixed value of pH
    C : These give unionised acid or base on reaction with added acid or alkali
    D : Acids and alkalies in these solutions are shielded from attack by other ions


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 118

    In Freundlich Adsorption isotherm, the value of 1/n is :

    A : 1 in case of physical adsorption
    B : 1 in case of chemisorption
    C : between 0 and 1 in all cases
    D : between 2 and 4 in all cases


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 119

    pH of a saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 is 12. The value of solubility product (KSP) of Ba(OH)2 is

    A : 4.0 * 10-6
    B : 5.0 * 10-6
    C : 3.3 * 10-7
    D : 5.0 * 10-7


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D



  •   Question 120

    When Cl2 gas reacts with hot and concentrated sodium hydroxide solution, the oxidation number of chlorine changes from :

    A : Zero to -1 and zero to +3
    B : Zero to +1 and zero to -3
    C : Zero to +1 and zero to -5
    D : Zero to -1 and zero to +5


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      Cl2 + NaOH (Hotconc.)→NaCl +NaClO3

  • DiseaseGausative OrganismsMode of Infection
    TOTAL = 120
    ANSWERED =
    CORRECT / TOTAL = /120
    POSITIVE SCORE =
    NEGATIVE SCORE =
    FINAL SCORE =