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  Question 1

The angular shape of molecule (O3) consists of

A : 2 sigma and 1 pi bond
B : 1 sigma and 2 pi bonds
C : 2 sigma and 2 pi bonds
D : 1 sigma and 1 pi bond


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     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 2

    The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following triatomic species is

    A : B :
    C : D :


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     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 3

    Four diatomic species are listed below the different sequences. Which of these presents the correct order of their increasing bond order?

    A : B :
    C : D :


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     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 4

    Equimolar solutions of the following were prepared in water separately. Which one of the solutions will record the highest pH?

    A : CaCl2
    B : SrCl2
    C : BaCl2
    D : MgCl2


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     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 5





    A : B :
    C : D :


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     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 6

    Green chemistry means such reactions which

    A : Study the reactions in plants
    B : Produce colour during reactions
    C : Reduce the use and production of hazardous chemicals
    D : Are related to the depletion of ozone layer


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     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 7

    A strong base can abstract an alpha-hydrogen from

    A : Alkane
    B : Alkene
    C : Amine
    D : Ketone


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     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 8

    How many stereoisomers does the molecules have? CH3CH = CHCH2CHBrCH3

    A : 2
    B : 4
    C : 6
    D : 8


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     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 9

    The stability of carbanions in the following




    A : a > c > b > d
    B : a > b > c > d
    C : b > c > d > a
    D : d > b > c > a


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     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      Higher is the electronegativity of atom higher will be stability of carbanion on it. Higher is the s-character, higher will be the electronegativity of atom.

  •   Question 10

    The relative reactivities of acyl compounds towards nucleophilic substitution are in the order of

    A : Acyl chloride > Ester > Acid anhydride > Amide
    B : Acyl chloride > Acid anhydride > Ester > Amide
    C : Ester > Acyl chloride > Amide > Acid anhydride
    D : Acid anhydride > Amide > Ester > Acyl chloride


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     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      Better is the leaving group higher will be the reactivity of acyl compounds towards nucleophilic acyl substitution. Weaker is the base, better is the leaving group. Weaker bases are derived from stronger acids

  •   Question 11

    Base strength of




    A : a > b > c
    B : b > a > c
    C : c > b > a
    D : a > c > b


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     Correct answer is : A

     Solution :
      Stronger is the conjugate acid weaker will be corresponding conjugate base.

  •   Question 12

    A (predominantly) is




    A : B :
    C : D :


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     Correct answer is : C



  •   Question 13

    In DNA, the complimentary bases are

    A : Uracil and adenine; cytosine and guanine
    B : Adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine
    C : Adenine and thymine; guanine and uracil
    D : Adenine and guanine; thymine and cytosine


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     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 14

    Which one the following is most reactive towards electrophilic attack?

    A : B :
    C : D :


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     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      Hydroxy group is most activating group among given options, towards electrophilic attack.

  •   Question 15

    An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gave C, 38.71% and H, 9.67%. The empirical formula of the compound would be

    A : CH4O
    B : CH3O
    C : CH2O
    D : CHO


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     Correct answer is : B



  •   Question 16

    In a SN2 substitution reaction of the type




    A : B :
    C : D :


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     Correct answer is : A

     Solution :
      For SN2 reaction, there should be low steric hinderance for better reactivity.

  •   Question 17

    Acetophenone when reacted with a base, C2H5ONa, yields a stable compound which has the structure?

    A : B :
    C : D :


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     Correct answer is : B



  •   Question 18

    In a reaction of aniline a coloured product C was obtained.




    A : B :
    C : D :


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     Correct answer is : A



  •   Question 19

    Which of the following statements is not true?

    A : Natural rubber is a 1, 4 - polymer of isoprene
    B : In vulcanization, the formation of sulphur bridges between different chains make rubber harder and stronger
    C : Natural rubber has the trans-configuration at every double bond
    D : Buna-S is a copolymer of butadiene and styrene


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     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      Natural rubber has cis-configuration at each double bond. Gutta-Percha has trans-configuration of each double bond.

  •   Question 20

    Which one of the following is an amine hormone?

    A : Progesterone
    B : Thyroxine
    C : Oxypurin
    D : Insulin


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     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      Thyroxine-derived from tyrosine amino acid.
    Insulin - Polypeptide.
    Progesterone - Steroid hormone.

  •   Question 21

    Select one of the following of important features distinguishing Gnetum from Cycas and Pinus and showing affinities with angiosperms

    A : Embryo development and apical meristem
    B : Absence of resin duct and leaf venation
    C : Presence of vessel elements and absence of archegonia
    D : Perianth and two integuments


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     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      Members of order Gnetales possess vessels and show absence of archegonia.

  •   Question 22

    Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobacterium exemplify

    A : Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes
    B : Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones
    C : Archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryoties but whose DNA is negatively supercoiled
    D : Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which have a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria


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     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      Archaebacteria have -ve supercoiled DNA but histones are chemically different in composition from eukaryotes

  •   Question 23

    Which one of the following is heterosporous?

    A : Equisetum
    B : Dryopteris
    C : Salvinia
    D : Adiantum


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     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      Others are homosporous pteridophytes.

  •   Question 24

    In which one of the following male and female gametophytes do not have free living independent existence?

    A : Cedrus
    B : Pteris
    C : Funaria
    D : Polytrichum


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     Correct answer is : A

     Solution :
      Cedrus is gymnosperm having reduced dependent gametophytes as pollen and endosperm.

  •   Question 25

    Which one of the following groups of three animals each is correctly matched with their one characteristic morphological feature?

    A : Cockroach, Locust, Taenia -Metameric segmentation
    B : Liver fluke, Sea anemone, Sea cucumber -Bilateral symmetry
    C : Centipede, Prawn, Sea urchin - Jointed appendages
    D : Scorpion, Spider, Cockroach -Ventral solid central nervous system


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     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 26

    Which one of the following phyla is correctly matched with its two general characteristics?

    A : Mollusca - Normally oviparous and development through a trochophore or veligerlarva
    B : Arthropoda - Body divided into head, thorax and abdomen and respiration by tracheae
    C : Chordata - Notochord at some stage and separate anal and urinary openings to the outside
    D : Echinodermata - Pentamerous radial symmetry and mostly internal fertilization


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     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 27

    Which one of the following in birds, indicates their reptilian ancestry?

    A : Eggs with a calcareous shell
    B : Scales on their hind limbs
    C : Four-chambered heart
    D : Two special chambers crop and gizzard in their digestive tract


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     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 28

    Ascaris is characterized by

    A : Presence of true coclom and metamerism (metamerisation)
    B : Absence of true coclom but presence of metamerism
    C : Presence of neither true coclom nor metamerism
    D : Presence of true coclom but absence of metamerism


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     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 29

    Which one of the following is not a characteristic of phylum Annelida?

    A : Ventral nerve cord
    B : Closed circulatory system
    C : Segmentation
    D : Pseudocoelom


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     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 30

    Cellulose is the major component of cell walls of

    A : Saccharomyces
    B : Pythium
    C : Xanthomonas
    D : Pseudomonas


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     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      Pythium is a phycomycetes member having cellulosic cell wall. Xanthomonas and Pseudomonas are Eubacteria having peptidogycan cell wall. Saccharomyces - Chitinous cell wall.

  •   Question 31

    Vacuole in a plant cell

    A : Lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances
    B : Is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins and lipids
    C : Is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory substances
    D : Lacks membrane and contains air


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     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      It is having tonoplast as membrane and stores water and excretory substances.

  •   Question 32

    A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase is

    A : Malate
    B : Malonate
    C : Oxaloacetate
    D : alpha- ketoglutarate


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     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      Malonate competes with succinate for active sites of succinate dehydrogenase

  •   Question 33

    Polysome is formed by

    A : Ribosomes attached to each other in a linear arrangement
    B : Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
    C : Many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum
    D : A ribosome with several subunits


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     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      This structure appears during protein synthesis in cytoplasm to translate different parts of a polypeptide

  •   Question 34

    Carbohydrates are commonly found as starch in plant storage organs. Which of the following five properties of starch (a - e) make it useful as a storage material?
    a. Easily translocated
    b. Chemical non-reactive
    c. Easily digested by animals
    d. Osmotically inactive
    e. Synthesized during photosynthesis
    The useful properties are


    A : Both a & e
    B : Both b & c
    C : Both b & d
    D : a, c & e


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     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      Starch is nonreducing and water insoluble so is preferred as storage material.

  •   Question 35

    In the light of recent classification of living organisms into three domains of life (bacteria, archaea and eukarya), which one of the following statements is true about archaea?

    A : Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes
    B : Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects
    C : Archaea have some novel features that are absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes
    D : Archaea completely differ from both prokaryotes and eukaryotes


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     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      Archea have primitive forms with histones, no organized nucleus, membrane bound organelles absent and proteinous and noncellulosic carbohydrate nature of cell wall.

  •   Question 36

    Keeping in view the 'fluid mosaic model' for the structure of cell membrane, which one of the following statements is correct w.r.t. the movement of lipids and proteins from one lipid monolayer to the other (described as flip-flop movement)?

    A : Neither lipids nor proteins can flip-flop
    B : Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop
    C : While lipids can rarely flip-flop, proteins cannot
    D : While proteins can flip-flop, lipids cannot


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     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      It is exclusive property of lipids shown during changing temperature of cellular environment.

  •   Question 37

    In germinating seeds fatty acids are degraded exclusively in the

    A : Mitochondria
    B : Proplastids
    C : Glyoxysomes
    D : Peroxisomes


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     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      It is regulated by glyoxylate cycle.

  •   Question 38

    The two sub-units of ribosome remain united at a critical ion level of

    A : Calcium
    B : Copper
    C : Manganese
    D : Magnesium


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     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      Mangesium concentration is 0.0001 M.

  •   Question 39

    Thron of Bougainvillea and tendril of cucurbita are example of

    A : Retrogressive evolution
    B : Analogous organs
    C : Homologous organs
    D : Vestigial organs


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     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 40

    Haploids are more suitable for mutation studies than the diploids. This is because

    A : All mutations, whether dominant or recessive are expressed in haploids
    B : Haploids are reproductively more stable than diploids
    C : Mutagens penetrate in haploids more effectively than diploids
    D : Haploids are more abundant in nature than diploids


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     Correct answer is : A

     Solution :
      Haploids have only one set of chromosome hence alleles

  •   Question 41

    Which one of the elements with the following outer orbital configurations may exhibit the largest number of oxidation states ?

    A : 3d24s2
    B : 3d34s2
    C : 3d54s1
    D : 3d54s2


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     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      7th group -> largest number of oxidation state.

  •   Question 42

    Which of the following molecules acts as a Lewis acid ?

    A : (CH3)3N
    B : (CH3)3B
    C : (CH3)2O
    D : (CH3)3P


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     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      (CH3)3B ->is electron efficient compound, so behaves as Lewis acid.

  •   Question 43

    Amongst the element with following electronic configurations, which one of them may have the highest ionization energy ?

    A : [Ne]3s23p1
    B : [Ne]3s23p3
    C : [Ne]3s23p2
    D : [Ar]3d104s2 4p3


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     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      [Ne]3s23p3 ->has highest ionization energy (half-filled)

  •   Question 44

    The straight chain polymer is formed by

    A : hydrolysis of (CH3)2SiCl2 followed by condensation polymerization
    B : hydrolysis of (CH3)3SiCl followed by condensation polymerization
    C : hydrolysis of CH3SiCl3 followed by condensation polymerization
    D : hydrolysis of (CH3)4Si by addition polymerization


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     Correct answer is : A



  •   Question 45





    A : 1-butene-3-yne
    B : 3-buten-1-yne
    C : 1-butyn-3-ene
    D : but-1-yn-3-ene


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     Correct answer is : A



  •   Question 46

    Which of the following compounds will exhibit cis-trans (geometrical) isomerism ?

    A : 1-Butanol
    B : 2-Butene
    C : 2-Butanol
    D : 2-Butyne


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     Correct answer is : B



  •   Question 47

    H2COH.CH2OH on heating with periodic acid gives :

    A : B : 2CO2
    C : 2HCOOH
    D :


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     Correct answer is : A



  •   Question 48

    Consider the following reaction



    A : CH3CH2-OH
    B : CH2 = CH2
    C : CH3CH2-O-CH2CH3
    D : CH3CH2-O-SO3H


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     Correct answer is : A



  •   Question 49

    Benzene reacts with CH3Cl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 to form

    A : Xylene
    B : Toluene
    C : Chlorobenzene
    D : Benzylchloride


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     Correct answer is : B



  •   Question 50

    Nitrobenzene can be prepared from benzene by using a mixture of conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4. In the mixture, nitric acid acts as a/an

    A : catalyst
    B : reducing agent
    C : acid
    D : base


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     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      HNO3 on nitrating mixture acts as a base.

  •   Question 51

    Which of the following reactions is an example of nucleophilic substitution reaction ?

    A : RX + Mg -> RMgX
    B : RX + KOH -> ROH + KX
    C : 2RX + 2Na -> R-R + 2NaX
    D : RX + H2 -> RH + HX


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     Correct answer is : B

     Solution :
      RX + KOH -> ROH + KX
    X- replaced by OH- show nucleophilic substitution reaction

  •   Question 52

    Which one of following is employed as a tranquilizer ?

    A : Chlorpheninamine
    B : Equanil
    C : Naproxen
    D : Tetracycline


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     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 53

    Structures of some common polymers are given which one is not correctly presented ?

    A : B :
    C : D :


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     Correct answer is : C



  •   Question 54





    A : B :
    C : D :


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     Correct answer is : B



  •   Question 55

    Propionic acid with Br2 / P yields a dibromo product, Its structure would be

    A : B : CH2Br-CHBr-COOH
    C : D : CH2Br-CH2-COBr


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     Correct answer is : A



  •   Question 56

    Trichloroacetaldehyde, CCl3CHO reacts with chlorobenzene in presence of sulphuric acid and produces

    A : B :
    C : D :


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     Correct answer is : A



  •   Question 57





    A : Benzene
    B : Toluene
    C : Benzaldehyde
    D : Benzoic acid


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     Correct answer is : D



  •   Question 58





    A : sp, sp2, sp3 and sp2
    B : sp, sp3, sp2 and sp3
    C : sp3, sp2, sp2 and sp
    D : sp, sp2, sp2 and sp3


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     Correct answer is : B



  •   Question 59

    The segment of DNA which acts as the instrument manual for the synthesis of the protein is :

    A : Nucleoside
    B : Nucleotide
    C : Ribose
    D : Gene


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     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 60

    Which of the following hormones contains iodine ?

    A : Thyroxine
    B : Insuline
    C : Testosterone
    D : Adrenaline


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     Correct answer is : A



  •   Question 61

    Which one of the following has haplontic life cycle ?

    A : Wheat
    B : Funaria
    C : Polytrichum
    D : Ustilago


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     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 62

    T.O.Diener discovered a :

    A : Bacteriophage
    B : Free infection DNA
    C : Free infectious RNA
    D : Infectious protein


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     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 63

    Mannitol is the stored food in -

    A : Gracillaria
    B : Chara
    C : Porphyra
    D : Fucus


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     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 64

    Which one of the following is a vascular cryptogram ?

    A : Cedrus
    B : Equisetum
    C : Ginkgo
    D : Marchantia


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     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 65

    Phylogenetic system of classification is based on:

    A : Floral characters
    B : Evolutionary relationships
    C : Morphological features
    D : Chemical constituents


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     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 66

    Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic ?

    A : Sponges
    B : Coelentrates (Cnidarians)
    C : Aschelminthes (round worms)
    D : Ctenophores


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     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 67

    Peripatus is a connecting link between :

    A : Coelenterata and Porifera
    B : Ctenophora and Platyhelminthes
    C : Mollusca and Echinodermata
    D : Annelida and Arthropoda


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     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 68

    Which one of the following pairs of animals comprises 'Jawless fishes' ?

    A : Guppies and hag fishes
    B : Lampreys and eels
    C : Mackerals and Rohu
    D : Lampreys and hag fishes


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     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 69

    If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle on its outer surface without damaging its gut, the fluid that comes out is :

    A : Slimy mucus
    B : excretory fluid
    C : Coelomic fluid
    D : haemolymph


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     Correct answer is : C


  •   Question 70

    Plasmodesmata are :

    A : Connection between adjacent cells
    B : Lignified cemented layers between cells
    C : Locomotory structures
    D : Membranes connecting the nucleus with plasmalemma


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     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 71

    Stroma in the chloroplast of higher plant contains :

    A : Stroma in the chloroplast of higher plant contains :
    B : Light-independent reaction enzymes
    C : Light-dependent reaction enzymes
    D : Ribosomes


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     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 72

    Synapsis occurs between :

    A : two homolog chromosomes
    B : a male and a female gamete
    C : mRNA and ribosomes
    D : spindle fibres and centromere


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     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 73

    Middle lamella is composed mainly of :

    A : Phosphoglycerides
    B : Hemicellulose
    C : Muramic acid
    D : Calcium pectate


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     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 74

    Cytoskeleton is made up of :

    A : Proteinaceous filaments
    B : Calcium carbonate granules
    C : Callose deposits
    D : Cellulose microfibrils


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     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 75

    The cell junctions called tight, adhering and gap junctions are found in

    A : Neural tissue
    B : Muscular tissue
    C : Connective tissue
    D : Epithelial tissue


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     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 76

    The kind of tissue that forms the supportive structure in our pinna (external ears) is also found in

    A : tip of the nose
    B : vertebrae
    C : nails
    D : ear ossicles


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     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 77

    The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian tubes is :

    A : Squamous
    B : Cuboidal
    C : Glandular
    D : Ciliated


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     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 78





    A : A-Cytokinesis
    B : B-Metaphase
    C : C-Karyokinesis
    D : D-Synthetic phase


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     Correct answer is : D


  •   Question 79

    What is not true for genetic code?

    A : It is unambiguous
    B : A codon in mRNA is read in a noncontiguous fashion
    C : It is nearly universal
    D : It is degenerate


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     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 80

    Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called :

    A : Capping
    B : Splicing
    C : Tailing
    D : Transformation


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     Correct answer is : B


  •   Question 81

    In a buffer solution containing equal concentration of B?-and HB, the Kb for B-? is 10?-10. The pH of buffer solution is:

    A : 10
    B : 7
    C : 6
    D : 4


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     Correct answer is : D



  •   Question 82

    The existance of two different coloured complexes with the composition of [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ is due to :

    A : linkage isomerism
    B : geometrical isomerism
    C : coordination isomerism
    D : ionization isomerism


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     Correct answer is : D



  •   Question 83

    Property of the alkaline earth metals that increases with their atomic number:

    A : Solubility of their hydroxides in water
    B : Solubility of their sulphates in water
    C : Ionization energy
    D : Electronegativity


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     Correct answer is : A


  •   Question 84





    A : rate = k[A]2[B]
    B : rate = k[A][B]
    C : rate = k[A]2[B]2
    D : rate = k[A][B]2


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     Correct answer is : D

     Solution :
      For order of A :
    By run I & IV
    [B] remain same but
    [A] increases 4 times and rate of reaction also becomes 4 times
    so order w.r.t. A is 1
    for order of B
    By Run III & III
    [A] remains same but
    [B] becomes 2 times and rate of reaction becomes 4 times
    so order w.r.t. B is 2
    so rate = K[A][B]2


  •   Question 85

    Which of the following pairs has the same size ?

    A : Fe2+, Ni2+
    B : Zr4+, Ti4+
    C : Zr4+, Hf4+
    D : Zn4+, Hf4+


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     Correct answer is : C

     Solution :
      In general, the atomic and ionic radii increases onmoving down a group. But the elements of second series (eg, Zr, Nb,Mo etc.) have the almost same radii as the elements of third transition serries (eg,Hf, Ta,W etc). This is because of lanthanide contraction ie, imperfect sheilding of one 4f - electron by another.

  •   Question 86

    The correct order of the decreasing ionic radii among the following is electronic species are:

    A : Ca2+ > K+ > S?2-> Cl?-
    B : Cl?- > S2- > Ca2+ > K+
    C : S2- > Cl-? > K+ > Ca2+
    D : K+ > Ca2+ > Cl?- > S22-


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    .

     Correct answer is : C