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QUIZ





  Question 1

A college received fifty applications fora certain course. In the qualifying examination, one-tenth of them secured marks in 90-95% range. Within remaining segment, threefifths of them secured marks in 75-90% range. The rest secured below 75%. To get admission, the following restrictions hold good
i) No student who has scored below 75% can seek admission to Physics course.
ii) No student is allowed to opt Physics without opting Mathematics.
iii) No student is allowed to opt Physics and Astrophysics simultaneously.
iv) To opt Mathematics or Astrophysics, a student should have scored at least 70% in the qualifying examination.
Which one of the following alternatives is possible ?


A : Ninety percent of the applicants are admitted to Physics course.
B : Thirty-five percent of the applicants who are otherwise ineligible to join Physics course are admitted to Mathematics and Astrophysics course.
C : Students of Physics course outnumber those of Mathematics
D : Whoever is eligible to study Mathematics is also eligible to study Physics.


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     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 2

    A tourist can tour utmost four places out of A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Out of four, not more than two can come under holiday tour and at least two must come under business trip. The break up is as follows :
    A, B C and D - Business tour
    E, F and G - Holiday tour.
    The following restrictions hold good.
    A)If A is included, then both C and G are excluded.
    B) If neither E nor F is included, then B or G or both of them can be included.
    C)If G is included, then D cannot be included. Which one of the following combinations is possible ?


    A : A, C, E and F
    B : B, G and E
    C : A, D and G
    D : A, B and D


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     Correct answer is : D




  •   Question 3

    Under the same fact situation as above, suppose that the following restrictions hold good:
    A) A can be included provided C is included.
    B) E is included provided B or G is included but not both.
    C) C can be included provided at least D or F is excluded. Which one of the following is a certainty ?


    A : A, B, C, & E
    B : A, C, D & F
    C : B, C, D & E
    D : A, B, C & F


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     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 4

    Four members have to be nominated to a Committee and there are six candidates: A, B, C, D, E and F. The following restrictions hold good :
    A) If A is nominated, then D does not find any place.
    B) If B is nominated, then either E or F has to be nominated, but not both.
    C) If C is nominated, then both D and E have to be nominated. Which one of the following is an acceptable combination ?


    A : A, B, C and E
    B : A, B, C and D
    C : B, C, D and E
    D : B, C, D and F


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     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 5

    Political turmoil in a country is mainly caused by widespread violence and flawed economic policies of successive governments. If at all this has to be crushed, it can be achieved only by a dictatorial government which rules with iron hand. Therefore, the need of the hour is to elect a government which imposes fresh set of stringent legislations. The alternatives suggested (not necessarily all), if true, considerably weaken the argument. However, one of them is most forceful. Identify the same.

    A : It is not the imposition of new legislations which is required, but effective adherence to the existing legislations.
    B : That government is the best government which governs least.
    C : It is possible to overcome any evil by educating people.
    D : Only dialogue in a free society can eradicate political turmoil.


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     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 6

    Under the same fact situation as above, the alternatives suggested (not necessarily all), if true, significantly strengthen the argument. However, one of them is most forceful. Identify the same.

    A : Espionage activities by enemy nations, which contribute to political turmoil, can be prevented only if the government is very strong.
    B : The philosophy behind any economic policy, 'push from bottom, press from top' is to be followed to mitigate violence, and it is not observed.
    C : Political turmoil is due to corrupt establishment.
    D : Man is, by nature, a beast. 19


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     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 7

    Exploitation of poor by rich can be stemmed only if the state exercises complete control over agriculture and industrial production. But state control is beset by two evils ; corruption and delay. The net result is that if man tries to escape from one evil, then he is trapped by another. Suffering, hence, is inescapable. The argument presented above seems to imply the following conclusions. Identify the one which is least dubious. Apply common sense.

    A : If agriculture and industrial production can be abolished, we can free ourselves from all forms of evil
    B : To avoid evil austere life shall be encouraged
    C : The gap between poor and rich can be bridged by heavily taxing the rich and passing on the largesse to the poor
    D : Man is, by nature, dishonest.


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     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 8

    That the human soul is immaterial is an undisputed fact. Significantly, what is not matter is not spatial and consequently, it is not vulnerable to motion. Evidently, no motion no dissolution. What escapes from dissolution is also free from corruptibility. Therefore, the human soul is immortal. In this argument, one premiss is missing. Complete the argument by choosing from the following :

    A : Nothing is free from dissolution
    B : What is incorruptible is immortal
    C : There is no motion
    D : Matter does not exist


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     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 9

    Under the same fact situation as above, which one of the following, if true, affects seriously the argument presented above ?

    A : Matter is not bound by space
    B : Matter is indestructible
    C : Whatever exists is not necessarily affected by motion.
    D : What is not matter also is vulnerable to motion.


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     Correct answer is : D




  •   Question 10

    Protagonists of human rights vehemently oppose capital punishment. Their opposition stems mainly from three reasons. Firstly, man cannot terminate what he cannot generate. Secondly, the function of punishment is to reform the culprit. Thirdly, a culprit should be given an opportunity to repent. Admittedly, death penalty fails on all three counts. However, the defenders argue that a person is punished because he has to pay for his deeds. Reformation or repentance, according to them, is peripheral. Hence, death penalty is admissible.
    Which one of the following is the focus of this debate ?


    A : Man's rights and privileges
    B : Nature and purpose of punishment
    C : Prevention of crime
    D : Mercy and revenge


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     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 11

    Since Venus rotates slowly, Fred Whipple thought that like Mercury, Venus keeps one face always towards the Sun. If so, he said that the dark side would be very cold. However, he knew with the help of earlier study carried out by Petit and Nicholson that it was not the case. So, he concluded that the planet must rotate fairly often to keep the darker side warmer.
    Which of the following is the original premiss ?


    A : Slow rotation of Venus
    B : Temperature of Venus.
    C : Frequent rotation of Venus
    D : Equality of the rate of rotation and revolution.


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     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 12

    Before formulating the laws of motion, Galileo distinguished between mathematical study and empirical study. He, first, theoretically derived the relation between distances and times for uniformly accelerating motion by letting the ball roll a quarter, then half, then twothirds and so on of the length of the groove and then measured the times on each occasion, which he repeated hundred times. He calculated, based on this study, that the distance travelled equalled the
    Which one of the following characterizes Galileo's method?


    A : Speculation
    B : Theoretical analysis
    C : Generalization
    D : Statistical analysis


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     Correct answer is : D




  •   Question 13

    Read carefully a brief summary of one of the investigations of Sherlock Holmes : "While investigating the murders of Stangerson and Enoch Drebber he got into conversation with fellow detectives which runs as follows : "The last link My case is complete.... Could you lay your hands upon those pills". After he got those pills, Holmes cut one of them, dissolved it in water and placed it in front of the terrier. Contrary to his expectations, the animal survived. Though disappointed a bit, he thought fora while and then cut the other pill, dissolved it, added milk and placed before the animal. The moment it licked, the animal died. Those were the pills present at the scenes of crime. Which one of the following aptly describes the method which this passage indicates ?

    A : Imagination
    B : Experiment
    C : Observation
    D : Thought experiment


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     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 14

    There has been much speculation concerning the origin of lunar craters. One hypothesis is that they are the results of the impact of heavy meteors on the surface of the moon while still soft. The most probable explanation is that they were produced by the gases liberated from the rocky matter. 'While solidification was taking place these gases and water vapors steadily escaped through viscous surface, raising giant bubbles. The reader can easily visualize the process that took place by watching frying of pancakes and noticing the formation of bubbles and craters on their surface.
    Which one of the following actually helps us to determine the origin of lunar craters ?


    A : Analogy
    B : Study of foreign body
    C : Course and effect relation
    D : Speculation


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     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 15

    "Perhaps the earliest work of Archimedes that we have is that on 'Plane Equilibrium'. In this, some fundamental principles of mechanics are set forth as rigorous geometric propositions. The work opens with famous postulate 'Equal weights at equal distances are in equilibrium; equal weights at unequal distances are not in equilibrium, but incline toward the weight at the greater distance".
    According to this passage, which factor or factors determine equilibrium ?


    A : weight
    B : distance
    C : weight and distance
    D : euality of weights and distances


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     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 16

    According to the above passage, which one of the following values can be assigned to the statement 'inequal weights at equal distances are in disequilibrium?

    A : true
    B : false
    C : highly probable
    D : highly improbable


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     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 17

    According to the above passage, which one of the following values can be assigned to the statement 'inequal weights at inequal distances are in disequilibrium' ?

    A : true
    B : false
    C : uncertain
    D : unverifiable


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     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 18

    'Gregor Mendel in examining tea-plants found two sharply marked races, the tall and the short. He experimentally fertilized flowers of tall plants with pollen of short. The off spring were tall plants. He next let the flowers of this first generation be fertilized with their own pollen. In the following generation, shortness reappeared. Tallness and shortness were distributed not at random but in a definite, constant, and simple ratio: three dominant tails to one recessive short'. Which one of the following aptly describes the distribution of dominant and recessive characteristics ?

    A : systematic
    B : equal interval
    C : unpredictable
    D : irregular interval


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     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 19

    It is said that in his strongly worded reaction to quantum Physics,. Einstein remaxks, 'God does not play dice' to which Bohr, another great physicist, reacted saying 'Do not tell Godwhat to do'. Bohr, earlier had argued that we can never know what the properties of an isolated quantum system, though we can know theproperties of macrocosmic objects.
    Which one of the following is the focus of their debate ?


    A : the behaviour of God
    B : probabilistic interpretation of the behaviour of quantum object
    C : limits of human knowledge
    D : irrelevance of microcosmic object


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     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 20

    An efficient and diesel-independent public transport. system is essential to the economic development of nation. Suppose that the government adopts a policy to that effect then there is another favourable. result. The pollution of environment is reduced to -a greater extent. But, then it has two-pronged backlash. The sale and consequently the production of two and four wheelers reduce to the minimum which in turn render a large number of people j obless.Cash flow to the treasury, also is adversely affected. Such a step, therefore, Js self-defeating unless the government evolves a counter-strategy to nullify the adverse effects. Which one of the following accurately projects the opinion of an imaginary speaker or author as the case may be of this passage ?

    A : Abandon the idea of efficient and diesel-independent public transport system
    B : Ensure sustained cash flow and create better job opportunities by inventing an alternate or more than one alternate
    C : Public transport system shall be given up
    D : Maintain production and sale at the same level by offering incentives


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     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 21

    A moot question to be considered is whether democratic form of government is a boon or bane, no matter what Lincoln might or might not have said. Rather his most (in ?) famous adage, 'by the people, for the people and of the people' misses the most pertinent question; which. attitude works behind when a person declares that heis a (or the right ?) candidate to serve the people, and does not hesitate to contest and fight tooth and nail the election, an euphemism for battle with or without bullets. Admittedly, the covert attitude is different from overt attitude. Hardly any one contests the election unwillingly. A contestant is not persuaded by any one, but driven by his own passions and dubious motives. Contrast this picture with Socrates' version ; no honest man willingly takes up the job of ruler. If at all he accepts, he does so for fear of being ruled by one made up of inferior mettle. It is beyond even the wildest imagination, to expect an honest person to contest the election. Assuming that every statement is true, identify from among the given alternatives the one which strictly follows from the passage.

    A : No assessment or appraisal of democracy is possible
    B : Lincoln and Socrates are talking differently
    C : Actually, Socrates scores over Lincoln on this issue
    D : Rulers can be honest


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     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 22

    According to the above passage, which one of the following correctly differentiates L'incoin Is and Socrates' analyses ?

    A : the nature of democracy
    B : merits and demerits of politicians
    C : qualities of election
    D : difference in mind set of respective men


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     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 23

    Many environmentalists either adopt double standard or do not know what they are talking about. A protagonist of environment, for obvious reasons, ought not to bat for any type of progress because progress without meddling with nature is a myth. But none can live without scientific and technological advance which has singularly made progress possible.. Furthermore, environment includes not just forest wealth and hills, but, animal wealth also. An honest environmentalist is obliged to address the following questions. First, should man in the interest of hygiene, kill any living being be it an insect purported to be harmful or stray dogs ? After all,this world does not belong to man alone. Which one of the following runs counter to the spirit of the passage ?

    A : In the interest of health and cleanliness, our surroundings must be from diseasespreading bacteria
    B : Non-violence as a moral principle extends to all living creatures
    C : Vegetarian food is ideal to all men
    D : Man should protect his environment because he has to live


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     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 24

    Does our society need reservation in job ? Before we defend reservation, we must consider some issues. Why do we need reservation? Obviously, reservation is required to lift the downtrodden and thereby achieve equality. How do you achieve this? Every individual, without exception, has a right to receive quality education. It is more so in the case of downtrodden people. Only a good-natured meritorious teacher can impart quality education. Suppose that a person who is neither good natured nor meritorious becomes a teacher thanks to reservation system. Then generations of students suffer. Suppose that there is some merit in this argument. Then which of the following aptly describes the fall-out of this argument?

    A : Reservation is individual - centric, but not group - centric
    B : Reservation, in at least one field, is self-defeating
    C : The argument is biased
    D : Education is not required to uplift the downtrodden


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     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 25

    Under the same fact situation as above, which one of the following helps you to circumvent the situation?

    A : Replace education with money and make poor rich
    B : To achieve equality encourage inter-caste marriage
    C : Only downtrodden people should form the government
    D : Identify good natured and meritorious people within downtrodden group to make them teachers


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     Correct answer is : D


  • Instructions: Each question contains some basic principles and fact situation in which these basic principles have to be applied. A list of probable decisions and reasons are given. You have to choose a decision with reasons specified

      Question 26

    Principles:
    1) On the death of husband, the widow shall inherit the property of her deceased husband along with children equally.
    2) A widow can not claim the property of the deceased if on the date when the question of succession opens, she has remarried.
    3) A female acquiring property in any way has the absolute title to the property. Apply the above three principles and decide the case of the following fact situation:
    Facts : When Sudhir died, he had 1/3rd share of the family property, which the three brothers Rudhir, Sudhir and Yasu inherited from their father, B. Sudhir died on September 23' 2006 without having any issue. The widow of Sudhir, Ms. Win remarried on January 1, 2007. Rudhir and Yasu refused 'Win' the share from Sudhir's portion when Win claimed the entire property belonging to Sudhir on January 30, 2007.
    Select your decision from the possible decisions given in list 1 and the appropriate reason from the indicated reasons given in list H given below: List I - Decisions
    (a) Win cannot inherit the property of Sudhir
    (b) Win can inherit the property of Sudhir
    i) Win does not belong to the family
    ii) Win was remarried
    iii) Her claim was on the date of Sudhir's death
    iv) Her claim was submitted after she was remarried
    Your decision and reason-


    A : (a) (i)
    B : (a) (ii)
    C : (b) (iii)
    D : (b) (i)


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     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 27

    Principles:
    1) If a person commits an act by which death is caused to another person and the act is done with the intention of causing death, that person is liable for murder.
    2) A person has a right of self defense to the extent of causing death to another provided he apprehends death by the act of the latter.
    Facts
    Shuva went to a hardware shop owned by Anup. Bargaining on some item led to altercation between the two and Shuva picked up a sharp object and hit at Anup. When Anup started bleeding, his wife Mridula intervened and she was also hit by Shuva and she became unconscious. Finding himself totally cornered, Anup delivered a severe blow to Shuva with a sharp object. Shuva died instantly.
    Possible decisions
    a) Anup murdered Shuva.
    b) Anup killed Shuva with the intention of killing to save himself and his wife
    C) Anup killed Shuva without any intention to do so just to save himself and his wife
    Probable reasons for the decision
    i) If a person kills another i stantly on the spot, the intention to kill is obvious.
    ii) Anup used force apprehending death of himself and his wife.
    ill) Anup used disproportionate force.
    iv) There was nothing to show that Shuva wanted to kill Anup or his wife.
    Your decision with the reason


    A : (a) (i)
    B : (a) (iii)
    C : (c) (ii)
    D : (b) (i)


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     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 28

    Principles: 1) Consumable goods which are not fit for consumption are not marketable.
    2) A consumer shall not suffer on account of unmarketable goods.
    3) A seller is liable for knowingly selling unmarketable goods.
    4) A manufacturer shall be liable for the quality of his products.
    Facts
    Ram bought a Coca Cola bottle from Shama's shop. Back at home, the server opened the bottle and poured the drink into the glasses of Ram and his friend Tom. As Tom started drinking, he felt irritation in his throat. Immediately, Ram and Tom took the sample to test and found nitric acid in the content. Ram filed a suit against Shama, Coca Cola company and the bottler, Kishen and Co. Suggested Decisions
    (a) Ram cannot get compensation
    (b) Tom can get compensation
    (c) Both Ram and Tom can get compensation
    Suggested Reasons
    i) Shama did not know the contents of sealed bottle.
    ii) Ram did not actually suffer though he bought the bottle.
    iii) Tom did not buy the bottle.
    iv) Coca Cola company is responsible since it supplied the concentrate
    v) Kishen & Co, is responsible since it added water, sugar, etc., and sealed the bottle.
    vi) Shama is responsible for selling the defective product.
    Your decision with the reason


    A : (a) (ii)
    B : (b) (vi)
    C : (c) (v)
    D : (c) (iv)


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     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 29

    Principles
    1. If A is asked to do something by B, B is responsible for the act, not A.
    2. If A, while acting for B commits a wrong, A is responsible for the wrong,not B.
    3. If A is authorised to do something for B, but in the name of A without disclosing B's presence, both A and B may be held liable.
    Facts
    Somu contracted with Amar whereunder Amar would buy a pumpset to be used in Somu's farm. Such a pumpset was in short supply in the market. Gulab, a dealer, had such a pumpset and he refused to sell it to Amar. Amar threatened Gulab of serious consequences if he fails to part with the pumpset. Gulab filed a complaint against Amar.
    Proposed Decision
    (a) Amar alone is liable for the wrong though he acted for Somu.
    (b) Amar is not liable for the wrong, though he is bound by the contract with Somu.
    (c) Somu is bound by the contract and liable for the wrong. (d) Both Somu and Amar are liable for the wrong.
    Suggested Reasons
    i) Amar committed the wrong while acting for the benefit of Somu.
    ii) Amar cannot do while acting for Somu something which he cannot do while acting for himself.
    iii) Both Amar and Somu are liable since they are bound by the contract.
    iv) Somu has to be responsible for the act of Amar committed for Somu's benefit.
    Your decision with the reason


    A : (a) (i)
    B : (a) (ii)
    C : (d)
    D : (iv)


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     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 30

    Principles
    1. The owner of a land has absolute interest on the property including the contents over and under the property.
    2. Water flowing below your land is not yours though you can use it.
    3. Any construction on your land belongs to you.
    4. All mineral resources below the land belongs to the State.
    Facts
    There is a subterranean water flow under Suresh's land surface. Suresh constructed a huge reservoir and drew all subterranean water to the reservoir. As a result, the wells of all adjacent property owners have gone dry. They demanded that either Suresh must demolish the reservoir or share the reservoir water with them.
    Proposed Decision
    (a) Suresh need not demolish the reservoir.
    (b) Suresh has to demolish the reservoir.
    (c) Suresh has to share the water with his neighbours.
    (d) The Government can take over the reservoir.
    Possible reasons
    i) Water cannot be captured by one person for his personal use.
    ii) The Government must ensure equitable distribution of water.
    iii) Whatever is under Suresh's land may be used by him.
    iv) Suresh has to respect the rights of others regarding water.
    Your decision with the reason


    A : (a) (iii)
    B : (b) (i)
    C : (c) (iv)
    D : (d) (ii)


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     Correct answer is : D




  •   Question 31

    The killing of a new born child by its parents is

    A : Malfeasance
    B : Infanticide
    C : Abortion
    D : Foeticide


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     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 32

    Offence of breaking a divine idol is

    A : Salus populi
    B : Crime
    C : Sacrilege
    D : Blasphemy


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     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 33

    A person who goes under-ground or evades the jurisdiction of the Court is known as

    A : Offender
    B : Under-ground
    C : Absentee
    D : Absconder


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     Correct answer is : D




  •   Question 34

    What is a caveat?

    A : A warning
    B : An injunction
    C : Writ
    D : Certiorari


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     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 35

    Muslim religious foundations are known as

    A : Din
    B : Wakfs
    C : Ulema
    D : Quzat


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     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 36

    Beyond what distance from the coast, is the sea known as "High Sea"?

    A : 20 miles
    B : 300 miles
    C : 200 kms.
    D : 12 miles


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     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 37

    A: Area along the Equator records the highest temperature throughout the year.
    R: On the equator, days and nights are equal for the largest part of the year.


    A : Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B : Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C : A is true but R is false
    D : A is false but R is true.


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     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 38

    A: Commercial fisheries have not developed in tropics.
    R: The demand for marine food from low income population is low in the tropics.


    A : Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B : Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C : A is true but R is false
    D : A is false but R is true.


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     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 39

    A: Lightning thunder and heavy rain accompany volcanic activity.
    R: Volcanoes throw water vapour and charged particles in the atmosphere.


    A : Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B : Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C : A is true but R is false
    D : A is false but R is true.


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     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 40

    A: Soils in some parts of Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan are saline.
    R: Evaporation exceeds precipitation.


    A : Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B : Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C : A is true but R is false
    D : A is false but R is true.


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     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 41

    A: The monsoons arrive suddenly in India in June. R: The monsoonal low pressure trough is well-developed over India.

    A : Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B : Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C : A is true but R is false
    D : A is false but R is true.


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     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 42

    A: India built dams and reservoirs to manage water resources. R: India had enough experience in canals.

    A : Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B : Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C : A is true but R is false
    D : A is false but R is true.


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     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 43

    A: The life expectancy in European countries is very high.
    R: European countries have low mortality rate.


    A : Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B : Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C : A is true but R is false
    D : A is false but R is true.


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     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 44

    A: The nomadic herders slaughter their animals for meat.
    R: Animals form the chief source of food and livelihood for nomadic herders.


    A : Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B : Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C : A is true but R is false
    D : A is false but R is true.


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     Correct answer is : D




  •   Question 45

    A: Exploitation of equatorial rain forest of Amazon basin is not easy.
    R: This region is very rich in several types of deadly animals and insects.


    A : Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B : Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C : A is true but R is false
    D : A is false but R is true.


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     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 46

    A: The Sea remains free from ice from British Columbia to Bering Sea.
    R: Air moving off the comparatively warm waters of North Pacific Drift gives the coastal areas of British Columbia a warmer climate.


    A : Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B : Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C : A is true but R is false
    D : A is false but R is true.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 47

    Statement : The patient's condition would improve after operation.
    Assumptions: I. The patient can be operated upon in this condition.
    II. The patient cannot be operated upon in this condition


    A : If only assumption I is implicit.
    B : If only assumption II is implicit.
    C : If either I or II is implicit.
    D : If neither I nor II is implicit.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 48

    Statement : Detergents should be used to clean cloths. Assumptions:
    I. Detergent form more lather.
    II. Detergent helps to dislodge grease and dirt.


    A : If only assumption I is implicit.
    B : If only assumption II is implicit.
    C : If either I or II is implicit.
    D : If neither I nor II is implicit.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 49

    Statement : "As there is a great demand, every person seeking ticket of the programme will be given only five tickets".
    Assumptions: I. The organisers are not keen on selling the tickets.
    II.. No one is interested in getting more than five tickets.


    A : If only assumption I is implicit.
    B : If only assumption II is implicit.
    C : If either I or II is implicit.
    D : If neither I nor II is implicit.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D




  •   Question 50

    Statement : Double your money in five months- An advertisement.
    Assumptions: I. The assurance is not genuine.
    II. People want their money to grow.


    A : If only assumption I is implicit.
    B : If only assumption II is implicit.
    C : If either I or II is implicit.
    D : If neither I nor II is implicit.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 51

    Statement : Films have become indispensable for the entertainment of people
    Assumptions: I. Films are the only media of entertainment.
    II. People enjoy films.


    A : If only assumption I is implicit.
    B : If only assumption II is implicit.
    C : If either I or II is implicit.
    D : If neither I nor II is implicit.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 52

    Statement "To keep myself up-to-date, I always listen to 9.00 p.m. news on radio". – A candidate tells the interview board.
    Assumptions: I. The candidate does not read newspaper.
    II. Recent news are broadcast only on radio.


    A : If only assumption I is implicit.
    B : If only assumption II is implicit.
    C : If either I or II is implicit.
    D : If neither I nor II is implicit.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D




  •   Question 53

    Statement : Never before such a lucid book was available on the topic.
    Assumptions: I. Some other books were available on this topic.
    II. You can write lucid books on very few topics.


    A : If only assumption I is implicit.
    B : If only assumption II is implicit.
    C : If either I or II is implicit.
    D : If neither I nor II is implicit.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 54

    Statement: "Present day education is in shambles and the country is going to Page the dogs"
    .Assumptions: I. A good education system is essential for the well being of a nation.
    II. A good education alone is sufficient for the well being of a nation.


    A : If only assumption I is implicit.
    B : If only assumption II is implicit.
    C : If either I or II is implicit.
    D : If neither I nor II is implicit.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 55

    Statement : Children are influenced more by their teachers nowadays.
    Assumptions: I. The children consider teachers as their models.
    II. A large amount of children's time is spent in school.


    A : If only assumption I is implicit.
    B : If only assumption II is implicit.
    C : If either I or II is implicit.
    D : If neither I nor II is implicit.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 56

    Pointing to a photograph, a lady tells Ram, "I am the only daughter of this lady and her son is your maternal uncle". How is the speaker related to Ram's father?

    A : Sister-in-law
    B : Wife
    C : Either (a) or (b)
    D : Neither (a) nor (b)


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 57

    Introducing a man, a woman said, "He is the only son of my mother's mother". How is the woman related to the man?

    A : Mother
    B : Aunt
    C : Sister
    D : Niece


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D




  •   Question 58

    Shyam said, "This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother". Who is Shyam to the girl?

    A : Father
    B : Grandfather
    C : Husband
    D : Father-in-law


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D




  •   Question 59

    Pointing to a man on the stage, Sunita said, "He is the brother of the daughter of the wife of my husband". How is the man on the stage related to Sunita?

    A : Son
    B : Husband
    C : Cousin
    D : Nephew


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 60

    Introducing a man to her husband, a woman said, "His brother's father is the only son of my grandfather". How is the woman related to his man?

    A : Mother
    B : Aunt
    C : Sister
    D : Daughter


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C


  • In each of the questions 151 to 155 a statement is followed by two assumptions. These assumptions may or may not be implicit in the statement Select your response in accordingly.

      Question 61

    Statement: If Ram has finished reading the instructions, let him begin activities accordinglyAssumption I: Ram has understood the instructionsAssumption II: Ram would be able to act accordingly

    A : Only assumption I is implicit
    B : Only assumption IT is implicit
    C : Both assumptions I and lI are Implicit
    D : Neither of the assumptions I and IT is implicit


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 62

    Statement : Children below the age of seven should not be prosecuted for crimes.Assumption I: Generally children below seven cannot distinguish between right and wrongAssumption II: Children below the age of seven are generally mentally unsound

    A : Only assumption I is implicit
    B : Only assumption IT is implicit
    C : Both assumptions I and lI are Implicit
    D : Neither of the assumptions I and IT is implicit


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 63

    Statement: The employer has a right to reject the application of any candidate for employment without assigning any reason while short listing candidates for interview.Assumption I: The employer is impartial and believes in transparency in employment practices.Assumption II: The employer wants to call only those candidates for interview, who in his opinion are eligible.

    A : Only assumption I is implicit
    B : Only assumption IT is implicit
    C : Both assumptions I and lI are Implicit
    D : Neither of the assumptions I and IT is implicit


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 64

    Statement: The government has decided to reduce custom duty on computersAssumption I: The government wants to make computer accessible to larger number of peopleAssumption II: Prices in domestic market may go up in near future

    A : Only assumption I is implicit
    B : Only assumption IT is implicit
    C : Both assumptions I and lI are Implicit
    D : Neither of the assumptions I and IT is implicit


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 65

    Statement: You can win over new friends by your warm smileAssumption I: It is necessary [o win over new friendsAssumption II: It is always better to smile warmly to new persons

    A : Only assumption I is implicit
    B : Only assumption IT is implicit
    C : Both assumptions I and lI are Implicit
    D : Neither of the assumptions I and IT is implicit


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 66

    Six students A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting. A and B are from Mumbai, rest are from Delhi. D and F are tall but others are short. A, C, and D are girls, others are boys. Which is the tall girl from Delhi?

    A : F
    B : D
    C : E
    D : C


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 67

    P is the brother of Q. R is the sister of Q. S is the Sister of R. How is Q relatod to S?

    A : brother
    B : sister
    C : brother or sister
    D : sonIn question numbers 158 to 160 two sets of words have certain relation. Select a word to replace the question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the other word in the third set.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 68

    Cat-Kitten; Goat-kid; Sheep-?

    A : colt
    B : filly
    C : lamb
    D : wool


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 69

    Cataract-eye; jaundice-liver; pyorrhea?

    A : breath
    B : tongue
    C : ears
    D : teeth


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D




  •   Question 70

    Blue-moon; blue-black; black-?

    A : sheep
    B : goal
    C : sky
    D : star


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A


  • A principle/principles and a fact situation are given in question no.161-165 Decide only on the basis of the principle(s).

      Question 71

    Principles(i) Neighbour principle-A person is liable if he harms his neighbour. A neighbour is one whose action affects another(ii) One is liable only for contractual relationsFacts X manufactures a food item and sells his food item to Y, a whole seller. Y appoints Z, a retailer to retail these items. Z sells the food item to a consumer who after eating them falls ill. X is liable to the consumer because

    A : of contractual relations
    B : of the Food Adulteration Act
    C : the consumer is the neighbor of X
    D : of the consumer protection law


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 72

    Principle(i) Freedom consists in making choices out of two or more alternatives(ii) Everyone has freedom to speakFactsX says his freedom to speech includes freedom not to speak. X's assertion is

    A : wrong
    B : right
    C : wrong because the freedom to speak cannot mean freedom not to speak
    D : right because X may opt to speak or not to speak


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D




  •   Question 73

    Principles(i) A master is liable for the wrongful acts of his servant(ii) A person can be called a servant only if there is a relation of employment and he acts under the order and on behalf of his masterFactsX bank launched a saving scheme for poor sections of the society and the customer can deposit Rs. 10 per day. Y an unemployed youth collected money from several customers, and on behalf of them deposited the money at the Bank every day. The bank gave to Y a small commission. After sometime, Y disappeared without depositing the money given by the customers. The customers bring a suit alleging that the Bank is liable.Decide

    A : the Bank is liable because it paid commission to Y
    B : the Bank is liable because Y was their servant
    C : the Bank is not liable because Y was not their servant
    D : No one is liable


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 74

    PrinciplesX propounds the principle that everyone in this world always speaks liesFactsX wants to know weather this principle is logically true or false

    A : logically the principle may be true
    B : everyone in the whole of this world does not always speak lies
    C : logically X is also speaking lies.
    D : everyone is basically an honest person


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 75

    PrincipleWhosoever enters into or upon the property in the possession of another, with intent to commit an offence or to intimidate or annoy any person in possession of the property, and remains there with intent thereby to intimidate or annoy another person or with intent to commit an offence is guilty of criminal trespassFactsThe accused entered at night into a house to carry on intimate relations with an unmarried major girl on her invitation and information that her family members are absent. However, he was caught by her uncle before he could get away. Is the accused guilty of criminal trespass? He is

    A : guilty of criminal trespass as he annoyed the uncle
    B : guilty because he entered the house to commit a crime against the girl
    C : guilty because no one should enter into the house of another at night
    D : not guilty of criminal trespass


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D




  •   Question 76

    In a code every letter of the alphabet is replaced by some other letter. The code. for the name Ram Kumar is

    A : Ten Ronet
    B : Len Final
    C : Pen Sinel
    D : Elephant


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A


  • Four of the giving five are alike in a certain way and form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group in questions no.167-168 ?

      Question 77

    (1)217 (11) 143 (111) 214 (IV) 157 (V) 131

    A : I
    B : V
    C : I
    D : III


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D




  •   Question 78

    (1) gourd (2) radish (3) spinach (4) cucumber (5) beetroot

    A : radish
    B : beetroot
    C : Potatoes
    D : SpinachPoint out the entry which does not form a class with the other entries in questions number 169 to 171.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 79



    A : house
    B : mortgage
    C : hypothecation
    D : immovable property


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 80



    A : Law
    B : Court
    C : Morality
    D : Judge


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 81



    A : Freedom of speech
    B : Right to equality
    C : Freedom of religion
    D : Right to make contract


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D


  • In Question 172 to 176 a question and two arguments are given. Arguments in relation to the question are either weak or strong. Use this key to give your responses

      Question 82

    Question: Should there be complete ban on manufacture of lire crackers in India?
    Argument I: No, This will render thousands of workers jobless
    Argument II: Yes, the fire cracker manufacturers use child labour


    A : Argument I is strong
    B : Argument II is strong
    C : Bath I and II are Strong
    D : Both I and II are weak


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 83

    Question: Should private operators be allowed to operate passenger train service in India?
    Argument I: No private operators do not agree to operate on non profitable sectors.
    Argument II: Yes, it will improve the quality of Indian Railway Service


    A : Argument I is strong
    B : Argument II is strong
    C : Bath I and II are Strong
    D : Both I and II are weak


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 84

    Question: Should (he system of reservation of posts for scheduled castes be introduced in private sector?
    Argument I: Yes, this would give more opportunity of development to these groups
    Argument II: No, this would effect merit


    A : Argument I is strong
    B : Argument II is strong
    C : Bath I and II are Strong
    D : Both I and II are weak


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 85

    Question: Would the problem of old parents be solved if children are made legally responsible to take care of their parents in old age?
    Argument I: Yes, such problems can be solved only through law.
    Argument II: Yes this will bring relief to old parents.


    A : Argument I is strong
    B : Argument II is strong
    C : Bath I and II are Strong
    D : Both I and II are weak


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 86

    Question: Should right to primary education be made a fundamental right?
    Argument I: We should first complete other developmental project, education of children may wail
    Argument II: Yes, without primary education for all there cannot be inclusive development


    A : Argument I is strong
    B : Argument II is strong
    C : Bath I and II are Strong
    D : Both I and II are weak


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 87

    Pramesh is heavier than Jairam but lighter than Gulab. Anand is heavier than Gulab. Mohan is lighter than Javam. Who among them is the heaviest?

    A : Jairam
    B : Anand
    C : Gulab
    D : Pramesh


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 88

    Ravi is the brother ofAmit's son. How is Amit related to Ravi?

    A : Cousin
    B : Father
    C : Son
    D : Grandfather


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 89

    If CABLE is coded ZCDAY, then STABLE will be coded as

    A : TPADAY
    B : TPCDCY
    C : TPCDAY
    D : TPCYAY


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 90

    If CHARTER is coded UMOEPYE then PARTNER will be coded as

    A : AONPCYE
    B : AEEPCYE
    C : AOEACYE
    D : AOEPCYE


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D




  •   Question 91

    Which of the following is not an assumption required by the above argument?

    A : Colour and diversity are desirable things.
    B : Tribal people are capable of contributing to India’s cultural diversity.
    C : Changing tribal customs is a necessary condition of making modern medicine available to tribal people.
    D : Rural life is presently full of colour and diversity.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C


  • Passage for questions 152-153

    ‘India is the only country in the world where, in the States which are governed by the Communist party, human rights are fully respected—and that is only because the Bill of Rights is firmly entrenched in our national Constitution. We can proudly say that our Constitution gave us a flying start and equipped us adequately to meet the challenges of the future.’


      Question 92

    Which of the following conclusions is not implied by the passage above?

    A : Communist states often do not respect human rights.
    B : Communist states never respect human rights
    C : The entrenchment of the Bill of Rights is what ensures that even Communist-governed states respect human rights.
    D : The Indian Constitution prepared India for the challenges of independence.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 93

    Which of the following, if true, would weaken the above argument?

    A : Communist governments are motivated to respect human rights out of Communist principles, not Constitutional ones.
    B : The Constitution of India is itself sympathetic to Communist principle.
    C : Human rights need to be enforceable to have any meaning.
    D : Countries without a strong culture of human rights are prone to oppressing minorities.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A


  • Passage for questions 154-155

    ‘Poverty is—more restrictive and limiting than anything else. If poverty and low standards continue then democracy, for all its fine institutions and ideals, ceases to be a liberating force. It must therefore aim continuously at the eradication of poverty and its companion unemployment. In other words, political democracy is not enough. It must develop into economic democracy also’.


      Question 94

    Which of the following is not implied by the above passage?

    A : Democracy has ceased to be a liberating force.
    B : Democracy should aim to eliminate poverty
    C : Poverty and unemployment go hand in hand.
    D : Political democracy should develop into economic democracy.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 95

    Which of the following views, if true, would weaken the argument of the above passage?

    A : Political democracy is inseparable from economic democracy.
    B : Poverty does not in fact restrict freedom.
    C : Democracy flourishes most in poor societies.
    D : Economic democracy is a necessary condition for the elimination of unemployment.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C


  • For questions 156 to 160
    RULES
    Rules A. The fundamental right to freedom of association includes the right to form an association as well as not join an association.
    C. The fundamental right to freedom of association does not extend to the right to realize the objectives of forming the association.
    D. Fundamental rights are applicable only to laws made by or administrative actions of the State and do not apply to actions of private persons.
    E. Any law in contravention of fundamental rights is unconstitutional and therefore cannot bind any person.

    FACTS
    Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals, a private company, offered an employment contract of two years to Syed Monirul Alam. One of the clauses in the employment contract provided that Syed Monirul Alam must join Gajodhar Mazdoor Singh (GMS), one of the trade unions active in Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals.


      Question 96

    Decide which of the following propositions can be most reasonably inferred through the application of the stated legal rules to the facts of this case:

    A : The employment contract offered to Monirul Alam to join GMS is legal as it does not restrict his freedom not to join any association.
    B : The condition requiring Monirul Alam to join GMS cannot bind him as it impinges on his freedom not to join any association.
    C : Syed Monirul Alam cannot claim a fundamental right to freedom of association against Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals and therefore, the contract would bind him even though his freedom of association is restr
    D : The employment contract infringes Syed Monirul Alam’s freedom to decide with whom to associate and therefore is legally not enforceable.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D




  •   Question 97

    If Parliament enacts a law which requires every employee to join the largest trade union in their workplace mandating Syed Monirul Alam to join GMS, then:

    A : Such a law would merely govern private action to which fundamental rights do not apply.
    B : Such a law would not curtail any individual’s right to freedom of association.
    C : Neither the employment contract, nor the law of the parliament would be enforceable as they would curtail the freedom of association.
    D : The law of parliament would violate an individual’s freedom not to join any association and therefore be unconstitutional.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D




  •   Question 98

    If Parliament enacts is law that requires a trade union to open its membership to all the employees, then

    A : Such a law would not infringe any fundamental right to freedom of association.
    B : The law of the parliament would curtail an individual’s right not to join any association.
    C : Such a law would curtail the union members’ right to decide with whom they would like to associate.
    D : Such a law would render the employment contract offered by Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals to Syed Monirul Alam unenforceable.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 99

    If Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals enter into an agreement with GMS wherein the former agrees to hire only the existing members of GMS as employees, then:

    A : The agreement would be illegal as it would curtail the union members’ right to decide with whom they would like to associate.
    B : Such an agreement would infringe the union’s right to decide with whom to associate and therefore is legally not enforceable.
    C : The agreement would not be enforceable as it would infringe upon the employer’s right not to join an association.
    D : The constitutionality of this agreement cannot be contested on grounds of contravention of fundamental rights as such rights are not applicable to private persons.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D




  •   Question 100

    If Parliament enacts a legislation prohibiting strikes by trade unions of employees engaged in pharmaceutical industry, then:

    A : The legislation would not violate the right to freedom of association.
    B : The legislation would curtail the right of trade unions to strike, and therefore violate freedom of association.
    C : Since strike is only one of the objectives with which a trade union is formed, right to strike is not protected by the right to freedom of association.
    D : None of the above


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C


  • For questions 161 to 163
    Rule: Whoever finds an unattended object can keep it unless the true owner claims that object. This does not affect the property owner’s right to the ownership of the property on which the object is found. The right to ownership of a property does not include the right to ownership of unattended objects on that property.
    Facts: Elizabeth is the CEO of global management services company in Chennai and is on her way to Ranchi to deliver the convocation address at India’s leading business school on the outskirts of Ranchi. Flying business class on Dolphin Airlines, she is entitled to use the lounge owned by the airline in Chennai Airport while waiting for her flight. She finds a diamond ear-ring on the floor of the lounge and gives it to the staff of Dolphin Airlines expressly stating that in the event of nobody claiming the ear-ring within six months, she would claim it back. The airline sell the ear-ring after eight months and Elizabeth files a case to recover the value of the earring from the airline when she is informed about its sale.


      Question 101

    As a judge you would order that:

    A : Elizabeth is not entitled to compensation because the ear-ring was found on the property of the airline and therefore, the airline is entitled to sell it.
    B : The airline must compensate Elizabeth because owning the lounge does not give the airline the right over all things that might be found on it.
    C : The airline must compensate Elizabeth because while accepting the ear-ring from Elizabeth they had agreed to return it if nobody claimed it within six months.
    D : Elizabeth is not entitled to compensation because she did not claim the ear-ring after the expiry of six months and the airline waited for a couple more months before selling it.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 102

    Assume how that Elizabeth was only an economy class passenger and was not entitled to use the airline’s lounge. However, she manages to gain entry and finds the ear-ring in the lounge. The rest of the above facts remain the same. Will her illegal entry into the Lounge affect Elizabeth’s right to keep the ear-ring (or be compensated for its value)?

    A : Yes, the airline claims that Elizabeth’s entry into the lounge was illegal and therefore she has no right over anything she found there
    B : No, because Elizabeth’s class of travel has no bearing on the outcome in this case
    C : Cannot be determined as we need to know how Elizabeth was able to access the airline’s lounge.
    D : None of the above


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 103

    To the original fact scenario, the following fact is added: In the lounge there are numerous signboards which proclaim ‘Any unattended item will be confiscated by Dolphin Airlines’. In this case, you would:

    A : Order the airline to pay compensation to Elizabeth because the board in the lounge cannot grant property rights over unattended objects to the airline.
    B : Deny Elizabeth compensation because the signboard makes it evident that the airline, as owner of the lounge, is exercising all rights over all unattended items in the lounge and the ear-ring is one su
    C : Deny Elizabeth compensation because she knew any unattended item belonged to the airline.
    D : Order the airline to pay compensation to Elizabeth because the property rights of the airline are relevant only if the item is unattended. The moment Elizabeth found the ear-ring, it belonged to her.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A


  • For questions 164 to 168
    Rules A: The State shall not discriminate, either directly or indirectly, on the grounds of sex, race, religion, caste, creed, sexual orientation, marital status, disability, pregnancy, place of birth, gender orientation or any other status.
    Rules B: Direct discrimination occurs when for a reason related to one or more prohibited grounds a person or group of persons is treated less favourably than another person or another group of persons in a comparable situation.
    Rules C: Indirect discrimination occurs when a provision, criterion or practice which is neutral on the fact of it would have the effect of putting persons having a status or a characteristic associate with one or more prohibited grounds at a particular disadvantage compared with other persons.
    Rules D: Discrimination shall be justified when such discrimination is absolutely necessary in order to promote the well-being of disadvantaged groups, such as women, dalits, religions minorities, sexual minorities or disabled persons.
    Facts: On 2nd October 2010, the Governor of the state of Bihar ordered the release of all women prisoners who were serving sentence of less than one year imprisonment to mark the occasion of Mahatma Gandhi’s birthday.


      Question 104

    Which of the following is correct with respect to the Governor’s order?

    A : It discriminates directly on the ground of sex.
    B : It discriminates indirectly on the ground of sex.
    C : It does not discriminate on the ground of sex.
    D : It discriminates directly as well as indirectly on the ground of sex.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 105

    Is the governor’s order justified under Rule D?

    A : Yes, because it is for the well-being of women prisoners.
    B : No, because it is not absolutely necessary for the well-being of women prisoners.
    C : No, because it does not promote the well-being of women prisoners of the society.
    D : None of the above


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 106

    Assume that the Governor also made a second order requiring the release of all persons under the age of 25 and over the age of 65 who were serving a sentence of less than one year’s imprisonment. Under the Rules, this order is:

    A : Directly discriminatory
    B : Indirectly discriminatory
    C : Not discriminatory
    D : Discriminatory, but justifiable.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 107

    Assume further that the government made a third order, releasing all graduate prisoners who are serving a sentence of less than one year’s imprisonment. Which of the following statistics would have to be true for this order to be indirectly discriminatory?

    A : Only 13% of the prison population in Bihar have a graduation degree.
    B : Of the graduate prisoners, 89% belong to upper castes
    C : Only 25% women in Bihar get a graduation degree.
    D : All of the above


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B


  • Rule E: ‘A discriminatory act shall be justified if its effect is to promote the well-being of disadvantaged groups, such as women, dalits, religious minorities, sexual minorities or disabled persons’.

      Question 108

    Would you first Order of release of all women prisoners be justified under Rule E?

    A : Yes, because it promotes the well-being of women.
    B : No, because it does not promote the well-being of women prisoners
    C : No, because it does not promote the well-being of all disadvantaged groups equally.
    D : None of the above.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B


  • For questions 169 to 173
    Rules:
    A. A minor is a person who is below the age of eighteen. However, where a guardian administers the minor’s property the age of majority is twenty one.
    B. A minor is not permitted by law to enter into a contract. Hence, where a minor enters into a contract with a major person, the contract is not enforceable. This effectively means that neither the minor nor the other party can make any claim on the basis of the contract.
    C. In a contract with a minor, if the other party hands over any money or confers any other benefit on the minor, the same shall not be recoverable from the minor unless the other party was deceived by the minor to hand over money or any other benefit. The other party will have to show that the minor misrepresented her age, he was ignorant about the age of the minor and that he handed over the benefit on the basis of such representation.

    Facts
    Ajay convinces Bandita, a girl aged 18 that she would sell her land to him. Bandita’s mother Chaaru is her guardian. Nonetheless Bandita, without the permission of Chaaru, sells the land to Ajay for a total sum of rupees fifty lakh, paid in full and final settlement of the price. Chaaru challenges this transaction claiming the Bandita is a minor and hence the possession of the land shall not be given to Ajay. Thus Ajay is in a difficult situation and has no idea how to recover his money from Bandita.


      Question 109

    Chaaru is justified in challenging the sale transaction because:

    A : Bandita is of unsound mind and is not in a position to make rational decisions.
    B : Though Bandita is eighteen year old, she will be treated as a minor, as Chaaru is her guardian.
    C : Though Bandita is eighteen year old, she cannot sell the land without the permission of her mother.
    D : Though Bandita is eighteen year old she should not be treated like a person who has attained the age of majority.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 110

    Ajay can be allowed to recover the money only if he can show that:

    A : He was deceived by Bandita who misrepresented her age.
    B : He honestly believed that Bandita was empowered under the law to sell the land.
    C : He was an honest person who had paid the full price of the land to Bandita.
    D : Both (a) and (b).


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 111

    In order to defend the sale, Bandita will need to show that

    A : Bandita has attained the age of majority.
    B : Bandita is mature enough to make rational decisions regarding her own affairs.
    C : The sale transaction was beneficial to her interest and will enhance her financial status.
    D : None of the above.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 112

    Which of the following is correct?

    A : Ajay should be allowed to recover the money because even though there is no contract, Bandita and Chaaru should not be allowed to unjustly benefit from Ajay’s money.
    B : Ajay should be allowed the possession of the land because Chaaru can always decide to approve the transaction between Ajay and Bandita.
    C : Ajay should not be allowed to recover because he induced Bandita, a minor, to sell the land.
    D : None of the above.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 113

    Which of the following is correct?

    A : If Ajay is allowed to recover the money, that will defeat the law framed for protecting the minors against fraudulent persons.
    B : If Ajay is not allowed to recover that will cause him injustice as he has not paid off the entire sale price.
    C : If Ajay is allowed to recover, Chaaru will benefit from both the money and the land.
    D : None of the above.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A


  • For questions 174 to 177

    Rules A. The act of using threats to force another person to enter into a contract is called coercion.
    B. The act of using influence on another and taking undue advantage of that person is called undue influence.
    C. In order to prove coercion, the existence of the use of threat, in any form and manner, is necessary. If coercion is proved, the person who has been so threatened can refuse to abide by the contract.
    D. In order to prove undue-influence, there has to be a pre-existing relationship between the parties to a contract. The relationship has to be of such a nature that one is in a position to influence the other. If it is proven that there has been undue influence, the party who has been so influenced need not enforce the contract or perform his obligations under the contract.

    Facts
    Aadil and Baalu are best friends. Aadil is the son of multi millionaire business person, Chulbul who owns Maakhan Pharmaceuticals. Baalu is the son of a bank employee, Dhanraj. One day, Aadil is abducted from his office by Baalu. Chulbul receives a phone call from Dhanraj telling him that if he does not make Baalu the CEO of Maakhan Pharmaceuticals, Aadil will be killed. Chulbul reluctantly agrees to make the Baalu the CEO. Subsequently Chulbul and Baalu sign an employment contract. However as soon as Aadil is released and safely returns home, Chulbul tells Baalu that he shall not enforce the employment contract. Baalu and Dhanraj are not sure as to what is to be done next.


      Question 114

    As per the rules and the given facts, who coerces whom:

    A : Aadil coerces Baalu
    B : Baalu coerces Chulbul
    C : Dhanraj coerces Chulbul
    D : None of the above


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 115

    In the above fact situation:

    A : There is undue influence exercised by Dhanraj on Baalu.
    B : There is undue influence exercised by Aadil on Chulbul
    C : There is no undue influence
    D : None of the above


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 116

    Chulbul is:

    A : Justified in refusing to enforce the employment contract as Chulbul was coerced by Dhanraj.
    B : Justified in refusing to enforce the employment contract as Baalu was complicit in the coercive act
    C : No justified in refusing to enforce the employment contract as Baalu was an innocent person and has not coerced Chulbul.
    D : Both (a) and (b).


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D




  •   Question 117

    Baalu will succeed in getting the employment contract enforced if he can show that

    A : He is the best friend of Aadil
    B : It was his father, and not he, who used coercion against Chulbul.
    C : Chulbul has promised his father to employ him.
    D : None of the above


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B


  • For questions 178 to 181
    Rule A: When a State undertakes any measure, the effects of the measure must be the same for all those who are affected by it.

    Facts 100 mountaineers embarked on an extremely risky climbing expedition in Leh. Weather conditions worsened five days into the expedition and the mountaineers are trapped under heavy show. The government received information of this tragedy only two weeks after the unfortunate incident and has only 24 hours in which to send rescue helicopters. Weather stations across the world confirm that this particular region of Leh will experience blizzards of unprecedented intensity for almost two weeks after this 24 hour window rendering any helicopter activity in the region impossible and certain death for anyone left behind. The government has only five rescue helicopters with a maximum capacity of 50 people (excluding pilots and requisite soldiers) and these helicopters can fly only once in 24 hours to such altitudes.As the Air Force gets ready to send the helicopters, an emergency hearing is convened in the Supreme Court to challenge this measure as this would leave 50 people to die.


      Question 118

    If you were the judge required to apply Rule A, you would decide that:

    A : As many lives must be saved as possible.
    B : If everyone cannot be rescued, then everyone must be left behind.
    C : A measure cannot be upheld at the cost of 50 lives.
    D : It must be left to those who are trapped to decide if they want half amongst them to be saved and leave the rest to die.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D


  • Rule B: When a State undertakes any measure, everyone affected must have an equal them to be benefit from it.

      Question 119

    As the government prepares to send in rescue helicopters, which option would be acceptable only under Rule B and not Rule A:

    A : A lottery to choose the 50 survivors excluding those diagnosed with terminal illnesses from participating in the lottery.
    B : A lottery to decide the 50 survivors with single parents of children below five years of age automatically qualifying to be rescued.
    C : The 50 youngest people should be rescued.
    D : None of the above


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 120

    Choosing 50 survivors exclusively by a lottery would be

    A : Permissible under Rules A and B
    B : Impermissible under Rule A and B
    C : Permissible only under Rule B
    D : Permissible only under Rule A.


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    .

     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 121

    Principle: Only Parliament or State Legislatures have the authority to enact laws on their own. No law made by the State can take away a person’s fundamental right.
    Facts: Parliament enacted a law, which according to a group of lawyers is violating the fundamental rights of traders. A group of lawyers files a writ petition challenging the Constitutional validity of the statute seeking relief to quash the statute and further direct Parliament to enact a new law.


    A : No writ would lie against Parliament, as the court has no authority to direct Parliament to enact or re-enact a law
    B : The court can quash existing law if it violates fundamental rights and can direct Parliament to make a new law
    C : The court can quash the existing law if it violates fundamental rights but cannot direct Parliament to make a new law.
    D : None of the above


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 122

    Principle: When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or abstain from doing anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that person to such an act or abstinence, he is said to have made a proposal.
    Fact: “Ramanuj telegraphed to Shyam Sunder, writing: “Will you sell me your Rolls Royce CAR? Telegram the lowest cash price.” Shyam Sunder also replied by telegram: “Lowest price for CAR is Rs. 20 lakh.” Ramanuj immediately sent his consent through telegram stating: “I agree to buy the CAR for Rs. 20 lakh asked by you.” Shyam Sunder refused to sell the car.


    A : He cannot refuse to sell the CAR because the contract has already been made.
    B : He can refuse to sell the CAR because it was only invitation to offer and not the real offer
    C : It was not a valid offer because willingness to enter into a contract was absent
    D : None of these


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 123

    Principle: Every person, who is of the age of majority, is competent to contract according to the law to which he is subject.
    Facts: A minor mortgaged his house in favour of Thakur Das, a money lender, to secure a loan of Rs. 20000. A part of this, i.e. Rs. 10500 was actually advanced to him. While considering the proposed advance, the attorney who was acting for the money lender, received information that the plaintiff was still a minor. Subsequently the minor commenced an action stating that he was underage when he executed the mortgage and the same should, therefore, be cancelled. He prayed for setting aside the mortgage. The mortgagee money lender prayed for the refund of Rs. 10500 from the minor.


    A : As a minor’s contract is void, any money advanced to a minor can be recovered.
    B : A minor’s contract is void ab initio, any money advanced to a minor cannot be recovered.
    C : A minor’s contract is voidable; any money advanced to a minor can be recovered
    D : Advanced money can be recovered because minor has given wrong information about his age.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 124

    Principle: A person is said to be of sound mind for the purpose of making a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his interests.
    Facts: Mr. X who is usually of sound state of mind, but occasionally of unsound state of mind, enters into a contract with Mr. Y when he was of unsound state of mind. Mr. Y having come to know about this fact afterwards, wants to file a suit against Mr. X


    A : Mr. X cannot enter into contract because he is of unsound state of mind when he entered into contract.
    B : Mr. X can enter into contract but the burden is on the other party to prove that he was of unsound state of mind at the time of contract.
    C : Mr. X can enter into contract but the burden is on Mr. X to prove that he was of sound state of mind at the time of contract
    D : None of these


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 125

    Principle:
    (1). The state shall not deny to any person equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
    (2). The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex and place of birth or any of them.
    Facts: The Government of Rajasthan, passed an order providing for reservations for the Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled Tribes and Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (including Muslims), and Women, in all institutions of higher education, including private educational institutions, both aided as well as unaided, in the following manner: Scheduled Caste- 15%; Scheduled Tribe- 7.5%, Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (including Muslims) - 27%
    I. The reservation policy of the government is violative of the principle of equality envisaged in the Constitution
    II. The reservation policy is unconstitutional because it is based on ‘caste’ which is a prohibited marker
    III. Reservation does not violate equalit


    A : I is correct
    B : I and II are both correct answers
    C : III is correct answer
    D : III and IV both are correct answers


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D




  •   Question 126

    Principle: Nothing is an offence merely by reason of its being done with the knowledge that it is likely to cause harm, if it be done without any criminal intention to cause harm, and in good faith for the purpose of preventing or avoiding other harm to a person or property.
    Facts: Mr. Sharman, the Captain of a steam vessel, suddenly and without any fault or negligence on his part, finds himself in such a position that, before he can stop his vessel, he must inevitably run down a boat B, with twenty or thirty passengers on board, unless he changes the course of his vessel, and that, by changing his course, he must incur the risk of running down a boat C with only two passengers on board and which he may possibly clear.


    A : Sharman has committed no offence because this was done out of necessity
    B : Sharman can be held responsible for the act of criminal negligence
    C : Sharman can be held responsible for culpable homicide
    D : This is a clear case of accident so Sharman cannot be held responsible


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    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 127

    Principle: Willful rash driving is an offense.
    Facts: Mr. Tiwari was driving his car after drinking alcohol. Police books him for willful negligent driving. Is the act of the police lawful?


    A : No, because Mr. Tiwari was not driving rashly; he was drunk while driving.
    B : No, this is not a negligent act.
    C : Yes, because Mr. Tiwari was driving rashly.
    D : Yes, because the police has the power to arrest a person driving rashly.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 128

    Principle: Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person’s consent, moves that property with an intention to take it, is said to commit theft.
    Facts: Y cuts down a tree on Z’s ground, with the intention of dishonestly taking it out of Z’s possession without Z’s consent. Y could not take away the tree.


    A : Y can be prosecuted for theft
    B : Y cannot be prosecuted for theft
    C : Y can be prosecuted for attempt to theft
    D : Y has neither committed theft nor attempted to commit theft


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 129

    Principle: Injuria Sine Damnum i.e. Injury (violation of legal right) without damage
    Facts: X, who was the returning officer at a polling booth in Amethi, wrongly refused to register a duly tendered vote of Y in the recent UP elections, even though Y was an eligible voter. The candidate in whose favour Y wanted to vote, was declared elected. Give the appropriate answer-


    A : Y can sue X on the ground that he was denied the right to cast vote, which is a fundamental right.
    B : Y can sue X on the ground that he was denied the right to cast vote, which is a legal right
    C : Y cannot sue X because there is no injury or damage caused to Y
    D : Y cannot sue X because the candidate in whose favor he wanted to vote was declared elected.


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    .

     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 130

    Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsound state of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or something that he is doing is either wrong or contrary to law.
    Fact: X takes his son Y who is three years old, for bathing to the well. He throws his son inside the well so that the son can have a good bath. After 10 minutes he also jumps into the well to take bath and get his son out of the well. Both were rescued by the villagers but his son was found dead.


    A : X has committed culpable homicide amounting to murder
    B : X has committed murder
    C : X has done no offence as he can plead the defense of unsound state of mind
    D : X’s family should be held responsible for allowing him to take the child to the well


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    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 131

    Principle: Ignorance of Fact is excused but ignorance of law is no excuse
    Fact: X was a passenger from Zurich to Manila in a Swiss Plane. When the plane landed at the Airport of Bombay on 28 Nov. 1962 it was found on searching that X carried 34 kg of Gold Bars on his person and that he had not declared it in the ‘Manifest for Transit’. On 26th Nov. 1962 the Government of India had issued a notification modifying its earlier exemption, making it mandatory now that the gold must be declared in the “Manifest” of the aircraft.


    A : X cannot be prosecuted because he had actually no knowledge about the new notification issued two days ago
    B : X cannot be prosecuted because ignorance of fact is excusable
    C : X can be prosecuted because ignorance of law is not excusable
    D : X’s liability would depend on the discretion of the court


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    .

     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 132

    Principle: Proposal (communication) + Acceptance (communication) + Consideration = Contract. The communication of a proposal is complete when it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made.
    Facts: X’s nephew absconded from home. He sent his servant in search of the boy. After the servant had left, X by handbills offered to pay Rs. 501 to anybody finding his nephew. The servant came to know of this offer only after he had already traced the missing child. He, therefore, brought an action to recover the reward.


    A : His action would fail because he was not aware of the offer
    B : His action would not fail because it was a general offer
    C : The fact that he was not aware of the offer does not make any difference and hence it was a valid contract. It is a mere formality
    D : None of the above


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 133

    Principle: Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or not capable of being made certain, are void.
    Facts: A horse was bought for a certain price coupled with a promise to give Rs.500 more if the horse is proved lucky.


    A : This is a valid agreement.
    B : This agreement is void for uncertainty because it is very difficult to determine what luck, bad or good, the horse has brought to the buyer.
    C : The agreement is partially valid and partially void.
    D : None of the above


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    .

     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 134

    Principle: Mere silence as to the facts likely to affect the willingness of a person to enter into a contract is not a fraud, unless the circumstances of the case are such that, on close examination it is found to be the duty of the person keeping silent to speak, or unless his silence is, in itself, equivalent to speech.
    Facts: X sells by auction to Y, a horse which X knows to be of unsound state of mind. X says nothing to Y about the horse’s unsound state of mind. Give the correct answer-


    A : X can be held liable for fraud.
    B : X can be held liable for misrepresentation
    C : X cannot be held liable, because he did not say anything positive about the mental state of the horse.
    D : X cannot be held liable because it is the buyer who must be aware of the things.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 135

    Principle: Any direct physical interference with goods in somebody’s possession without lawful justification is called trespass of goods.
    Facts: Z purchased a car from a person who had no title to it and sent it to a garage for repair. X believing wrongly that the car was his, removed it from the garage.


    A : X can be held responsible for trespass of goods
    B : X cannot be held responsible for trespass of goods as he was under a wrong belief.
    C : X has not committed any wrong.
    D : None of the above


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A


  • Instructions (166 to 180 ): Each of the next nine questions consists of two statements, one labeled as ‘Assertion’ (A) and other as ‘Reason’ (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.

      Question 136

    Assertion (A): A void contract is not necessarily illegal
    Reason (R): Every illegal contract is void.


    A : Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B : Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
    C : A is true but R is false
    D : A is false but R is true


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 137

    Assertion (A): The Indian Constitution was adopted on 26th November, 1949.
    Reason (R): Law Day is celebrated in India on 26th November every year.


    A : Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B : Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
    C : A is true but R is false
    D : A is false but R is true


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : B




  •   Question 138

    Assertion (A): The state shall not make any law, which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by Part III (Fundamental Rights) and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
    Reason (R): The fundamental rights are the rights reserved by the people and for this reason they are eternal and sacrosanct.


    A : Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B : Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
    C : A is true but R is false
    D : A is false but R is true


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 139

    Assertion (A): Directive Principles of State Policy contained in Part IV shall not be enforceable by any court, but the principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
    Reason (R): Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Rights are both complementary to each other but in case of any controversy fundamental rights will prevail.


    A : Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B : Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C : A is true but R is false
    D : A is false but R is true.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 140

    Assertion (A): All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
    Reason (R): Institutions established by the minorities are not entitled to governmental aid and government is not under an obligation to give aid.


    A : Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B : Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
    C : A is true but R is false
    D : A is false but R is true


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : C




  •   Question 141

    Assertion (A): The right to move the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the fundamental rights is guaranteed as a fundamental right.
    Reason (R): Supreme Court of India has been appointed as the guardian of the Constitution.


    A : Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B : Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C : A is true but R is false
    D : A is false but R is true.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 142

    Assertion (A): If the budget presented to the Rajya Sabha in not passed in the stipulated period, the budget proposals are not affected.
    Reason (R): The Lok Sabha is more powerful, in financial matters, than the Rajya Sabha.


    A : Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B : Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
    C : A is true but R is false
    D : A is false but R is true


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D




  •   Question 143

    Assertion (A): In the Event of violation of any legal right (tort) the aggrieved party is entitled to recover unliquidated damages.
    Reason (R): The object of awarding damages to the aggrieved party is to put him in the same position in which he would have been if the wrong would not have been committed. Damages are therefore, assessed on that basis.


    A : Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B : Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C : A is true but R is false
    D : A is false but R is true.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 144

    Assertion (A): During inflation, there is increase in money supply and rise in price level.
    Reason (R): The rise in prices is due to shortage in supply of essential consumer goods.


    A : Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B : Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
    C : A is true but R is false
    D : A is false but R is true


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 145

    Assertion (A): X, because of unsound state of mind and not knowing the nature of the act, attacks Y, who in self defense and in order to ward off the attack, hits him thereby injuring him. Y has not committed an offence.
    Reason (R): Y had a right of private defense against X under Section 98 of the Indian Penal Code.


    A : Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B : Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C : A is true but R is false
    D : A is false but R is true.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 146

    Assertion (A): X and Y independently entertained the idea to kill Z. Accordingly, each of them separately inflicted wounds on Z who died as a consequence. X and Y are liable for murder under 341 IPC.
    Reason (R): When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all, each of such persons is liable as if the whole act was done by him alone.


    A : Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B : Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
    C : A is true but R is false
    D : A is false but R is true


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : D




  •   Question 147

    Assertion (A): A person claims compensation for his non-gratuitous act.
    Reason (R): A person who enjoys benefit from lawful, non-gratuitous act of another must compensate him even though there is no contract.


    A : Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B : Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C : A is true but R is false
    D : A is false but R is true.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 148

    Assertion (A): Freedom of Speech is the most important civil liberty of people in a democratic polity.
    Reason (R): State can regulate free speech in the interest of public order.


    A : Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B : Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
    C : A is true but R is false
    D : A is false but R is true


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 149

    Assertion (A): Austin’s concept of law is known as imperative theory
    Reason (R): Austin emphasized on the commanding character of law.


    A : Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B : Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C : A is true but R is false
    D : A is false but R is true.


  •  
    .

     Correct answer is : A




  •   Question 150

    Assertion (A): The essence of joint liability under section 149 of the IPC is that the criminal act must have been done with a view to fulfill the common object of an unlawful assembly.
    Reason (R): Any sudden and provocative act done by a member of an unlawful assembly would render the other members of that assembly liable.


    A : Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B : Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
    C : A is true but R is false
    D : A is false but R is true


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     Correct answer is : C


  • MY REPORT
    TOTAL = 150
    ANSWERED =
    CORRECT / TOTAL = /150
    POSITIVE SCORE =
    NEGATIVE SCORE =
    FINAL SCORE =